This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 6. Spine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3721
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 14-year-old female gymnast presents with persistent low back pain unresponsive to 6 months of conservative management. Radiographs reveal a Grade II L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. In situ L5-S1 posterolateral instrumented fusion
Explanation
In adolescents with symptomatic low-grade isthmic spondylolisthesis failing conservative care, in situ posterolateral instrumented fusion of L5-S1 is the standard of care. Pars repairs are typically reserved for L1-L4 defects without a significant slip.
Question 3722
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
Which of the following radiographic parameters defines an adequate restoration of sagittal balance following adult spinal deformity corrective surgery?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pelvic incidence minus Lumbar lordosis (PI-LL) less than 10 degrees
Explanation
Adequate sagittal alignment in adult spinal deformity is widely defined by a PI-LL mismatch of less than 10 degrees, an SVA less than 5 cm, and a PT less than 20 degrees. Proper restoration of these parameters improves health-related quality of life outcomes.
Question 3723
Topic: 6. Spine
A 35-year-old man sustains a flexion-distraction injury (Chance fracture) of the T12 vertebra during a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Which of the following associated injuries must be most carefully ruled out?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Intra-abdominal hollow viscus injury
Explanation
Flexion-distraction injuries (Chance fractures) are frequently caused by seatbelt trauma and have a 40-50% association with intra-abdominal injuries. Hollow viscus injuries, particularly of the small bowel, are the most common associated finding.
Question 3724
Topic: 6. Spine
A 45-year-old man presents with severe right leg pain radiating down the anterior thigh to the medial malleolus. Examination reveals a weakened patellar reflex and 3/5 strength in right knee extension. MRI shows a far-lateral extraforaminal disc herniation. Which spinal level is most likely affected?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L3-L4
Explanation
A far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation impinges the exiting nerve root at the same level. An L4-L5 far-lateral herniation affects the L4 nerve root, causing weakness in knee extension, anterior thigh pain, and a diminished patellar reflex.
Question 3725
Topic: 6. Spine
During the anterior placement of halo pins for cervical spine immobilization, the pins should be placed in the lateral one-third of the eyebrow to avoid injury to which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supraorbital nerve and artery
Explanation
The safe zone for anterior halo pin placement is the lateral one-third of the eyebrow, just above the equator of the skull. Medial placement risks injury to the supraorbital and supratrochlear nerves, frontal sinus, and supraorbital artery.
Question 3726
Topic: 6. Spine
A 75-year-old patient with ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency department with severe neck pain following a ground-level fall. Neurological examination is normal. Standard anteroposterior and lateral cervical radiographs show no clear fracture. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Obtain a non-contrast CT scan of the cervical spine
Explanation
Patients with ankylosing spondylitis are highly susceptible to unstable cervical spine fractures even from low-energy trauma. A CT scan of the cervical spine is mandatory to rule out an occult fracture, as conventional radiographs are notoriously difficult to interpret in these patients.
Question 3727
Topic: 6. Spine
Which congenital spinal anomaly carries the highest risk for rapid scoliosis progression and typically warrants early prophylactic in situ fusion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Unilateral unsegmented bar with contralateral hemivertebra
Explanation
A unilateral unsegmented bar with a contralateral hemivertebra represents a complete failure of segmentation on one side and a failure of formation on the other. This creates a severe growth imbalance, leading to the highest risk of rapid curve progression.
Question 3728
Topic: Cervical Spine
A 55-year-old woman undergoes a multilevel anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) using recombinant human bone morphogenetic protein-2 (rhBMP-2). Postoperatively, she develops severe dysphagia and respiratory distress. This complication is most directly related to which of the following?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Prevertebral soft tissue swelling
Explanation
The use of rhBMP-2 in the anterior cervical spine is associated with a significantly increased risk of severe prevertebral soft tissue swelling. This swelling can lead to life-threatening airway compromise and dysphagia, which prompted FDA warnings regarding its off-label use in ACDF.
Question 3729
Topic: 6. Spine
A 32-year-old construction worker presents with a burst fracture of L1 and bilateral lower extremity paraparesis. He is awake, alert, and hemodynamically stable. MRI demonstrates significant retropulsion of bone into the spinal canal. What is the most common indication for an anterior corpectomy and strut grafting over a purely posterior approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inability to indirectly reduce the canal compromise via ligamentotaxis
Explanation
Anterior corpectomy allows for direct decompression of the spinal canal. It is specifically indicated when posterior ligamentotaxis fails or is unable to adequately clear retropulsed bone fragments causing persistent neurological deficits.
Question 3730
Topic: 6. Spine
A 60-year-old man presents with neurogenic claudication secondary to severe lumbar spinal stenosis at L4-L5. Which of the following findings on history or physical examination best differentiates neurogenic claudication from vascular claudication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Symptom relief when leaning forward over a shopping cart
Explanation
Neurogenic claudication is characteristically relieved by lumbar flexion (such as leaning over a shopping cart or sitting), which increases the spinal canal area. Vascular claudication is worsened by muscle exertion regardless of posture and is typically relieved by simply resting.
Question 3731
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 65-year-old woman presents with worsening low back pain and a progressive forward-leaning posture while walking. Radiographs demonstrate degenerative lumbar scoliosis. Her measured pelvic incidence (PI) is 60 degrees. To achieve optimal sagittal balance postoperatively, what should her lumbar lordosis (LL) ideally be reconstructed to?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 60 degrees
Explanation
Optimal sagittal balance in adult spinal deformity requires the lumbar lordosis (LL) to be matched within 10 degrees of the patient's pelvic incidence (PI). Therefore, for a PI of 60 degrees, the ideal LL should be approximately 60 degrees (acceptable range 50 to 70 degrees).
Question 3732
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
In the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) system, which of the following morphological patterns is assigned the highest point value?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Distraction
Explanation
The TLICS system assigns 4 points to a distraction morphology, which is the highest score in the morphology category. Translation/rotation receives 3 points, burst 2, and compression 1.
Question 3733
Topic: 6. Spine
A 68-year-old woman presents with classic neurogenic claudication. MRI confirms severe L4-L5 central spinal stenosis associated with a grade 1 degenerative spondylolisthesis. She has failed 6 months of conservative treatment. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L4-L5 laminectomy with instrumented posterolateral fusion
Explanation
In patients with symptomatic lumbar spinal stenosis associated with degenerative spondylolisthesis, decompression combined with instrumented fusion provides better long-term clinical and radiographic outcomes compared to decompression alone.
Question 3734
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
In the evaluation of adult spinal deformity, Pelvic Incidence (PI) is a fixed morphologic parameter. What is the anatomic formula relating Pelvic Incidence (PI), Pelvic Tilt (PT), and Sacral Slope (SS)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. PI = PT + SS
Explanation
Pelvic Incidence is a fixed anatomical parameter defined as the sum of Pelvic Tilt and Sacral Slope (PI = PT + SS). It dictates the required lumbar lordosis for optimal sagittal balance.
Question 3735
Topic: 6. Spine
A 7-year-old boy presents with torticollis following an upper respiratory infection. Open mouth odontoid radiograph shows asymmetry of the lateral masses, consistent with Fielding Type 1 Atlantoaxial Rotatory Subluxation (AARS). What is the most appropriate initial management, given symptom onset was 3 days ago?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Soft cervical collar, NSAIDs, and observation
Explanation
Fielding Type 1 AARS (rotatory fixation without anterior displacement) presenting acutely (less than 1 week) is initially managed conservatively with a soft collar, NSAIDs, and muscle relaxants.
Question 3736
Topic: 6. Spine
A 60-year-old man with cervical spondylotic myelopathy is being considered for a posterior laminoplasty. Which of the following preoperative radiographic findings is a relative contraindication for this procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reversal of cervical lordosis (kyphosis > 10 degrees)
Explanation
Cervical kyphosis greater than 10-13 degrees is a contraindication for laminoplasty. The spinal cord will not adequately drift posteriorly (the "bowstring effect") to relieve anterior compression in a kyphotic spine.
Question 3737
Topic: Cervical Spine
An 82-year-old woman sustains a Type II odontoid fracture after a ground-level fall. She has multiple medical comorbidities, severe osteoporosis, and is minimally displaced. What is the most appropriate management strategy with the lowest associated mortality?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Rigid cervical collar immobilization
Explanation
In elderly patients with significant comorbidities, rigid cervical collar immobilization is often preferred for Type II odontoid fractures. Surgical intervention and halo vest use carry significantly higher morbidity and mortality in this population.
Question 3738
Topic: 6. Spine
A 35-year-old man presents with a complete C5 spinal cord injury after a diving accident. He is awake and cooperative. Imaging shows bilateral C5-C6 facet dislocations without massive disc herniation. What is the most urgent next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Closed reduction with awake cranial traction
Explanation
For awake, cooperative patients with acute cervical facet dislocations and neurologic deficits, immediate closed reduction via cranial traction is the standard of care to decompress the spinal cord rapidly. MRI should not delay urgent closed reduction.
Question 3739
Topic: 6. Spine
Which of the following radiographic criteria is required for the classical Sorenson diagnosis of Scheuermann's kyphosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior wedging of at least 5 degrees in three consecutive vertebrae
Explanation
The classic Sorenson criteria for diagnosing Scheuermann's disease require anterior wedging of at least 5 degrees in three or more consecutive vertebral bodies.
Question 3740
Topic: 6. Spine
A patient presents with severe right anterior thigh pain and weakness in knee extension. An MRI reveals a far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L3-L4 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L3
Explanation
In the lumbar spine, a far lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation impinges the exiting nerve root at that level. At the L3-L4 level, the exiting root is L3.
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