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Question 3581

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 16-year-old boy presents with progressive mid-back pain and a cosmetic deformity. Radiographs reveal a thoracic kyphosis of 65 degrees. According to Sorensen's criteria, which radiographic finding is required for the diagnosis of Scheuermann's disease?

. Anterior wedging of greater than 5 degrees in at least three consecutive vertebrae
. Schmorl's nodes in at least four levels
. Thoracic kyphosis greater than 75 degrees
. Irregular endplates with loss of disc height at a single level
. Apophyseal ring fracture at the apex

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior wedging of greater than 5 degrees in at least three consecutive vertebrae


Explanation

Sorensen's classic criteria for diagnosing Scheuermann's kyphosis require the presence of anterior wedging of greater than 5 degrees in at least three consecutive apical vertebrae.

Question 3582

Topic: 6. Spine

A 42-year-old man presents with acute back pain, bilateral leg pain, perineal numbness, and urinary retention. MRI reveals a massive L4-L5 central disc herniation. Within what timeframe is surgical decompression generally recommended to optimize bladder function recovery?

. Within 6 hours
. Within 12 hours
. Within 48 hours
. Within 72 hours
. Within 1 week

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Within 48 hours


Explanation

Cauda equina syndrome with urinary retention is a surgical emergency. Decompression within 48 hours has been shown to significantly improve outcomes regarding motor, sensory, and sphincter function recovery.

Question 3583

Topic: 6. Spine

During a posterior lumbar decompression for L4-L5 spinal stenosis, a dural tear occurs with CSF leak. It is repaired primarily. What is the recommended postoperative management regarding patient mobilization?

. Strict bed rest for 7 days
. Immediate placement of a lumbar drain
. Early mobilization as tolerated
. Revision surgery for fascial grafting
. Broad-spectrum prophylactic antibiotics for 14 days

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Early mobilization as tolerated


Explanation

Recent studies suggest that prolonged bed rest is unnecessary following a primary repair of an incidental durotomy. Early mobilization does not increase the rate of secondary CSF leak or complications.

Question 3584

Topic: 6. Spine
A 3-year-old boy has a fully segmented hemivertebra at T8. Routine screening should include which of the following imaging modalities?
. Renal ultrasound and total spine MRI
. CT of the chest and abdomen
. Brain MRI alone
. Pelvic radiograph and hip ultrasound
. Echocardiogram and skeletal survey

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Renal ultrasound and total spine MRI


Explanation

Congenital scoliosis is strongly associated with other VACTERL anomalies. Renal ultrasound is needed to screen for genitourinary abnormalities, and a total spine MRI is critical to rule out intraspinal anomalies like tethered cord or diastematomyelia.

Question 3585

Topic: 6. Spine

A 19-year-old man wearing a lap seatbelt is involved in a high-speed collision. He has a flexion-distraction injury (Chance fracture) at L2. Which of the following concurrent injuries must be highly suspected and investigated?

. Cervical spine burst fracture
. Intra-abdominal visceral injuries
. Thoracic aortic tear
. Pelvic ring disruption
. Bilateral calcaneus fractures

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intra-abdominal visceral injuries


Explanation

Chance fractures (flexion-distraction injuries) are frequently associated with lap seatbelt use and have a high correlation (up to 50%) with intra-abdominal visceral injuries, particularly bowel perforations.

Question 3586

Topic: 6. Spine

A 62-year-old man undergoes an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) for myelopathy. Postoperatively, he presents with difficulty swallowing solid foods. Which of the following is the most important intraoperative consideration to minimize postoperative dysphagia?

. Ligation of the superior thyroid artery
. Avoiding dissection lateral to the uncovertebral joints
. Decreasing endotracheal tube cuff pressure and minimizing esophageal retraction
. Placement of a dynamic anterior plate
. Transverse rather than longitudinal incision

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreasing endotracheal tube cuff pressure and minimizing esophageal retraction


Explanation

Postoperative dysphagia is a common complication of anterior cervical spine surgery. Temporarily deflating the endotracheal tube cuff during retraction and minimizing excessive esophageal retraction pressure can help reduce this risk.

Question 3587

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 78-year-old man presents with severe neck pain after a low-energy fall. Radiographs and CT scan reveal a Type II odontoid fracture with 6 mm of posterior displacement and comminution at the fracture base. He is neurologically intact. His medical history includes hypertension and mild osteopenia. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

. Rigid cervical collar for 12 weeks
. Halo vest immobilization for 12 weeks
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Posterior C1-C2 instrumented fusion
. Occipitocervical fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior C1-C2 instrumented fusion


Explanation

Posterior C1-C2 instrumented fusion is the most reliable treatment for elderly patients with displaced Type II odontoid fractures. Nonoperative management (halo or collar) has an unacceptably high nonunion rate and morbidity in this age group, while anterior screw fixation is contraindicated given his osteopenia and fracture comminution.

Question 3588

Topic: 6. Spine

A 66-year-old woman presents with progressive neurogenic claudication and bilateral leg pain limiting her walking distance to less than one block. MRI demonstrates severe central canal stenosis at L4-L5 with a Grade I degenerative spondylolisthesis. After 6 months of failed nonoperative management including epidural injections, she elects for surgery. What is the most evidence-based surgical intervention?

. L4-L5 isolated laminectomy
. L4-L5 laminectomy with instrumented posterolateral fusion
. Stand-alone anterior lumbar interbody fusion (ALIF)
. L4-L5 minimally invasive laminotomy
. Interspinous process spacer placement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4-L5 laminectomy with instrumented posterolateral fusion


Explanation

For patients with lumbar stenosis and concomitant degenerative spondylolisthesis, decompression alone (laminectomy) leads to a higher risk of subsequent instability and reoperation. Laminectomy combined with instrumented fusion provides superior long-term functional outcomes and stability.

Question 3589

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 24-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a shallow water diving accident. He is awake, alert, and cooperative, with no other traumatic injuries. Examination reveals full strength and sensation in all extremities. Radiographs and CT scan show a C5-C6 bilateral facet dislocation with 50% translation. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

. Immediate MRI of the cervical spine
. Application of a hard cervical collar and delayed posterior fusion
. Awake closed reduction via cranial traction
. Emergent anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF)
. Emergent posterior cervical laminectomy and fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Awake closed reduction via cranial traction


Explanation

In an awake, alert, and cooperative patient with a cervical facet dislocation, rapid closed reduction using cranial traction is safe and indicated before obtaining an MRI. If the patient has an altered mental status or fails closed reduction, an MRI should be obtained prior to surgical intervention to evaluate for an extruded disc.

Question 3590

Topic: 6. Spine

A 5-year-old boy is evaluated for early-onset spinal deformity. Radiographs demonstrate multiple congenital vertebral anomalies. Which of the following specific anomalies carries the highest risk for rapid curve progression and often requires early prophylactic surgical fusion?

. Fully segmented unilateral hemivertebra
. Incarcerated hemivertebra
. Unilateral unsegmented bar with a contralateral hemivertebra
. Block vertebra
. Butterfly vertebra

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Unilateral unsegmented bar with a contralateral hemivertebra


Explanation

A unilateral unsegmented bar with a contralateral hemivertebra represents a combined failure of formation and failure of segmentation. This creates an unopposed, highly asymmetric growth pattern that rapidly progresses, typically requiring early surgical intervention.

Question 3591

Topic: 6. Spine

A 48-year-old man presents with sharp, radiating left lower extremity pain after lifting a heavy box. An MRI of the lumbar spine reveals a large, left-sided far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level. Which nerve root is most likely compressed, and what clinical finding would be expected?

. L4 root; weakness in ankle dorsiflexion
. L4 root; weakness in knee extension and decreased patellar reflex
. L5 root; weakness in great toe extension
. L5 root; decreased Achilles reflex
. S1 root; decreased Achilles reflex

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4 root; weakness in knee extension and decreased patellar reflex


Explanation

A far-lateral (extraforaminal) disc herniation at L4-L5 compresses the exiting L4 nerve root, unlike a paracentral herniation at the same level which compresses the traversing L5 root. L4 radiculopathy clinically presents with anterior thigh pain, weakness in knee extension, and a diminished patellar reflex.

Question 3592

Topic: 6. Spine

A 62-year-old man with a history of long-standing ankylosing spondylitis presents with new-onset mechanical back pain following a minor slip and fall. Plain radiographs of the thoracolumbar spine show bridging syndesmophytes but no obvious fracture. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Discharge with physical therapy and NSAIDs
. Application of a TLSO brace and follow-up in 2 weeks
. Flexion-extension radiographs of the lumbar spine
. CT scan or MRI of the entire spine
. Bone scintigraphy (bone scan)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CT scan or MRI of the entire spine


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis have highly rigid, osteopenic spines and can sustain highly unstable transvertebral or transdiscal fractures from trivial trauma. If clinical suspicion is high and plain films are negative or obscured, advanced imaging (CT or MRI) of the entire spine is mandatory due to the high risk of catastrophic neurologic decline.

Question 3593

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old woman with advanced rheumatoid arthritis presents for preoperative evaluation of severe cervical myelopathy. Which of the following radiographic parameters best predicts the likelihood of postoperative neurologic recovery following cervical decompression and stabilization?

. Anterior atlanto-dental interval (ADI) > 10 mm
. Posterior atlanto-dental interval (PADI) / Space Available for Cord (SAC) > 14 mm
. Subaxial subluxation > 4 mm
. Cervical lordosis > 15 degrees
. Cranial settling with the dens 5 mm above Chamberlain's line

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior atlanto-dental interval (PADI) / Space Available for Cord (SAC) > 14 mm


Explanation

In the rheumatoid cervical spine, the posterior atlanto-dental interval (PADI), also known as the space available for the cord (SAC), is the most critical parameter predicting neurologic recovery. A PADI of less than 14 mm correlates strongly with irreversible cord damage and poor postoperative neurologic recovery.

Question 3594

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

During surgical correction of a complex adult degenerative scoliosis, restoring sagittal balance is a primary goal to optimize postoperative function and pain relief. According to the Schwab criteria, what is the ideal postoperative target relationship between Pelvic Incidence (PI) and Lumbar Lordosis (LL)?

. PI and LL should be equal to within 10 degrees (PI - LL < 10°)
. LL should exceed PI by at least 20 degrees
. PI should exceed LL by at least 20 degrees
. Pelvic Tilt (PT) should be greater than 25 degrees
. Sacral Slope (SS) should be less than 10 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. PI and LL should be equal to within 10 degrees (PI - LL < 10°)


Explanation

In adult spinal deformity surgery, optimal sagittal balance is achieved when the patient's lumbar lordosis matches their innate pelvic incidence. The Schwab classification targets a PI-LL mismatch of less than 10 degrees to improve functional outcomes and minimize the risk of adjacent segment disease.

Question 3595

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 16-year-old gymnast presents with persistent, localized low back pain that worsens with extension activities. She has failed 6 months of rest and physical therapy. Radiographs and a CT scan reveal a bilateral pars interarticularis defect at L5 with a Grade II spondylolisthesis. If surgical intervention is pursued, what is the standard treatment of choice?

. Pars repair with lag screws
. L5 laminectomy without fusion
. Posterolateral in situ fusion of L5-S1
. Anterior-only L5-S1 interbody fusion
. Sacroiliac joint fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral in situ fusion of L5-S1


Explanation

For a symptomatic adolescent with a high-grade (Grade II or above) isthmic spondylolisthesis that fails conservative management, L5-S1 posterolateral in situ fusion (often with instrumentation) is the gold standard. Pars repair is generally reserved for patients with defects but minimal to no slip (Grade 0 or early Grade I) at higher lumbar levels.

Question 3596

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 30-year-old male construction worker falls from scaffolding, sustaining a T12 burst fracture. He is neurologically intact. Review of his CT and MRI shows a comminuted burst fracture with 20% canal compromise and an intact posterior ligamentous complex (PLC). According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is his score and recommended treatment?

. TLICS 2; Nonoperative treatment with TLSO
. TLICS 4; Operative or nonoperative treatment
. TLICS 5; Operative treatment
. TLICS 6; Operative treatment
. TLICS 7; Operative treatment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. TLICS 2; Nonoperative treatment with TLSO


Explanation

The TLICS score for this injury is 2: Morphology is burst (2 points), Neurology is intact (0 points), and PLC is intact (0 points). A score of 3 or less indicates nonoperative management, typically with a TLSO brace or early mobilization depending on pain and mechanical stability.

Question 3597

Topic: 6. Spine

A 52-year-old man of Japanese descent presents with clumsiness of the hands, broad-based gait, and hyperreflexia in both upper and lower extremities. Plain radiographs show dense, confluent ossification along the posterior aspect of the cervical vertebral bodies from C3 to C6. What is the primary pathomechanical cause of his symptoms?

. Disc herniation compressing the anterior spinal artery
. Hypertrophy of the ligamentum flavum
. Ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL)
. Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH)
. Ankylosing spondylitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL)


Explanation

This presentation is classic for Ossification of the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament (OPLL), which has a higher prevalence in East Asian populations. The ossified ligament compresses the ventral spinal cord, leading to progressive cervical myelopathy.

Question 3598

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old woman complains of neck and arm pain radiating down to her thumb and index finger. Examination reveals decreased sensation over the radial aspect of the forearm, weakness in wrist extension, and a diminished brachioradialis reflex. An MRI is most likely to show a disc herniation at which cervical level?

. C4-C5
. C5-C6
. C6-C7
. C7-T1
. T1-T2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5-C6


Explanation

The patient's findings (thumb/index numbness, weak wrist extension, decreased brachioradialis reflex) correspond to a C6 radiculopathy. In the cervical spine, exiting nerve roots exit above the corresponding pedicle, so a C5-C6 disc herniation compresses the C6 root.

Question 3599

Topic: 6. Spine

A 12-year-old boy with non-ambulatory spastic quadriplegic cerebral palsy presents with a severe, progressive sweeping neuromuscular scoliosis of 85 degrees and a pelvic obliquity of 25 degrees. He is experiencing difficulty sitting in his customized wheelchair. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical intervention?

. Anterior growth tethering
. Growing rod instrumentation without fusion
. Selective thoracic posterior spinal fusion
. Posterior spinal fusion extending from the upper thoracic spine to the pelvis
. In situ fusion of the lumbar spine only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior spinal fusion extending from the upper thoracic spine to the pelvis


Explanation

In non-ambulatory patients with severe neuromuscular scoliosis and significant pelvic obliquity, the standard of care to restore sitting balance is a long posterior spinal fusion extending from the upper thoracic spine down to the pelvis. Stopping short of the pelvis frequently leads to recurrent pelvic obliquity and seating difficulties.

Question 3600

Topic: 6. Spine

A 35-year-old woman presents with severe low back pain, bilateral sciatica, and new-onset urinary incontinence. Physical examination reveals saddle anesthesia and decreased anal sphincter tone. To maximize the chance of full bladder function recovery, surgical decompression should ideally be performed within what timeframe from symptom onset?

. Within 6 hours
. Within 12 hours
. Within 24 to 48 hours
. Within 72 hours
. Within 1 week

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Within 24 to 48 hours


Explanation

The patient has Cauda Equina Syndrome, a surgical emergency. The literature strongly suggests that surgical decompression performed within 24 to 48 hours of symptom onset provides the best prognosis for the recovery of bladder and bowel function.