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Question 3501

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old man presents with progressive hand clumsiness, difficulty buttoning his shirt, and a wide-based gait. Physical examination demonstrates a positive Hoffmann sign bilaterally and sustained ankle clonus. An MRI of the cervical spine confirms severe central canal stenosis from C3-C6. He undergoes a posterior cervical laminectomy and instrumented fusion. On postoperative day 2, he develops isolated, severe weakness in bilateral shoulder abduction and elbow flexion (0/5 strength), with normal hand grip and lower extremity function. Sensation is intact. What is the most likely etiology of this complication?

. Undetected intraoperative spinal cord ischemia
. Postoperative epidural hematoma compressing the cord
. Iatrogenic C5 nerve root tethering
. C5-C6 foraminal soft disc herniation
. Displacement of lateral mass screws into the vertebral artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iatrogenic C5 nerve root tethering


Explanation

This patient has developed a C5 palsy, a well-recognized complication of cervical decompression, especially posterior laminectomy and fusion. It occurs in up to 5-10% of cases. The prevailing theory is that the decompression allows the spinal cord to drift posteriorly (the 'bowstring' effect), causing traction and tethering of the relatively short C5 nerve roots. It presents as deltoid and/or biceps weakness, typically without sensory loss or long-tract signs, and can occur immediately or a few days postoperatively.

Question 3502

Topic: 6. Spine

A 35-year-old woman with advanced rheumatoid arthritis presents with progressive neck pain and occipital headaches. Lateral flexion-extension radiographs of the cervical spine demonstrate 9 mm of anterior atlantoaxial subluxation (AAS). The posterior atlantodental interval (PADI) measures 12 mm. Physical examination reveals diffuse hyperreflexia and a positive Babinski sign. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Rigid cervical collar immobilization and observation
. Posterior C1-C2 instrumented fusion
. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
. Occipitocervical fusion
. Transoral odontoidectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior C1-C2 instrumented fusion


Explanation

Symptomatic anterior atlantoaxial subluxation with neurological signs (myelopathy) and a posterior atlantodental interval (PADI) of less than 14 mm is a strong indication for surgical stabilization to prevent catastrophic spinal cord injury. For reducible AAS without vertical subluxation (basilar invagination) or lateral mass destruction, a posterior C1-C2 instrumented fusion is the standard treatment. Odontoid screw fixation is used for acute type II odontoid fractures, not RA. Occipitocervical fusion is reserved for cases with vertical subluxation/basilar invagination.

Question 3503

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old woman presents with neck pain radiating down her right arm. Physical examination reveals weakness in wrist extension, a diminished brachioradialis reflex, and numbness over the dorsal aspect of the thumb and index finger. Which cervical nerve root is most likely compressed?

. C5
. C6
. C7
. C8
. T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C6


Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for a C6 radiculopathy. The C6 nerve root innervates the extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis (wrist extension) and the biceps and brachioradialis muscles (elbow flexion/pronation). The brachioradialis reflex is mediated by C6. Sensory distribution of C6 covers the lateral forearm, thumb, and index finger. C5 compression would present with deltoid/biceps weakness and a diminished biceps reflex. C7 compression causes triceps and wrist flexion weakness, a diminished triceps reflex, and middle finger numbness.

Question 3504

Topic: 6. Spine

A 72-year-old man undergoes a wide L4-L5 decompressive laminectomy for spinal stenosis. Intraoperatively, a dural tear is encountered and primarily repaired with 4-0 nonabsorbable suture. Postoperatively, the patient develops a positional headache, and clear fluid is noted draining from the wound. Neurologic exam is normal. What is the most appropriate initial step in management?

. Immediate return to the operating room for re-exploration and dural repair
. Placement of a subarachnoid lumbar drain
. Over-sewing the skin incision and bed rest
. Administration of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
. Application of a negative pressure wound therapy device

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Over-sewing the skin incision and bed rest


Explanation

In the setting of a postoperative cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak following an intraoperative dural tear that was primarily repaired, initial management of a small, uninfected wound leak often includes over-sewing the wound edge, strict flat bed rest, and avoidance of increased intrathecal pressure (Valsalva). If conservative measures fail, a subarachnoid drain or re-operation may be considered. Placing a wound VAC is strictly contraindicated as the negative pressure will continuously pull CSF, preventing closure of the dural defect.

Question 3505

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old man presents with progressive clumsiness in his hands, difficulty buttoning his shirts, and a broad-based gait. Physical examination reveals a positive Hoffmann sign bilaterally and hyperreflexia in the lower extremities. MRI of the cervical spine shows severe stenosis at C4-C5 and C5-C6 with T2 signal change in the spinal cord. What is the most appropriate management?

. Physical therapy and NSAIDs
. Cervical epidural steroid injections
. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) or posterior decompression
. Vitamin B12 supplementation
. Observation with serial MRIs

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) or posterior decompression


Explanation

The patient has classic signs of degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM), including hand clumsiness, gait instability, and upper motor neuron signs (Hoffmann sign, hyperreflexia). Imaging confirming stenosis with cord signal change corresponds to his clinical presentation. The most appropriate treatment for progressive or symptomatic DCM is surgical decompression (via an anterior, posterior, or combined approach) to halt the progression of neurologic decline. Nonoperative treatment is inadequate for progressive myelopathy.

Question 3506

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old man presents with progressive clumsiness in his hands, frequent dropping of objects, and a wide-based, unsteady gait. Suspecting cervical spondylotic myelopathy, you perform a thorough neurologic examination. Which of the following physical examination findings is considered the most specific for this condition?

. Hoffmann sign
. Sustained clonus
. Inverted brachioradialis reflex
. Lhermitte sign
. Biceps hyperreflexia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inverted brachioradialis reflex


Explanation

The inverted brachioradialis reflex occurs when tapping the brachioradialis tendon produces finger flexion (or absent radial reflex) rather than the normal response. It is highly specific for cervical myelopathy at the C5-C6 level. The Hoffmann sign, while highly sensitive for upper motor neuron pathology, lacks specificity and can be observed in up to 3% of asymptomatic individuals.

Question 3507

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old man with cervical spondylotic myelopathy presents with worsening hand clumsiness, a positive Hoffman reflex, and gait instability. Preoperative magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the cervical spine is obtained. Which of the following MRI findings correlates most strongly with irreversible spinal cord damage and a poor prognosis for neurologic recovery after surgical decompression?

. Broad T2-weighted hyperintensity spanning multiple levels
. Focal T2-weighted hyperintensity isolated to one level
. Severe foraminal stenosis
. T1-weighted hyperintensity
. T1-weighted hypointensity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. T1-weighted hypointensity


Explanation

In the setting of cervical spondylotic myelopathy, T1-weighted hypointense signal within the spinal cord (often referred to as a 'black cord') indicates cystic myelomalacia and necrosis. This finding represents permanent structural damage and correlates strongly with poor postoperative neurologic recovery. While T2-weighted hyperintensity is a sensitive marker for cord edema and gliosis, it is not as highly specific for irreversible injury as T1 hypointensity.

Question 3508

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 40-year-old man has intractable pain following 2 years of nonsurgical management for high-grade spondylolisthesis. What is the best surgical option?

Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 9 - Figure 36

. Posterolateral fusion
. Posterolateral fusion with instrumentation
. Circumferential fusion
. Transforaminal lumbar interbody fusion
. Anterior lumbar interbody fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Circumferential fusion


Explanation

Circumferential fusion is the preferred choice for patients undergoing revision surgery following failed posterolateral fusions for isthmic spondylolisthesis as well as for those patients having primary surgery for high-grade isthmic spondylolisthesis.

Question 3509

Topic: 6. Spine

An intoxicated 68-year-old man fell at home. Examination reveals abrasions on his forehead, 2/5 weakness of his hand intrinsics and finger flexors, and 4/5 strength of the deltoid, biceps, and triceps bilaterally. Lower extremity motor function is 5/5. Sensory examination to pain and temperature is diminished in his hands but intact in his lower extremities. Deep tendon reflexes are depressed in all four extremities, but perianal sensation and rectal tone are intact. Foley catheterization yields 700 mL of urine. Radiographs of the cervical spine reveal multilevel spondylosis without fracture or subluxation. An MRI scan reveals high-intensity signal change within the cord substance at C5. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 9 - Figure 93

. Brown-Sequard syndrome
. Central cord syndrome
. Anterior cord syndrome
. Posterior cord syndrome
. Bilateral brachial plexus palsy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central cord syndrome


Explanation

Central cord syndrome is characterized by greater neurologic involvement of the upper extremities than the lower extremities. This is typically seen in older patients with cervical spondylosis without associated bony injury or joint subluxation. The prognosis for recovery is fair. Patients with Brown-Sequard syndrome have an ipsilateral motor deficit and contralateral loss of pain and temperature. Prognosis for recovery depends on the mechanism of injury, which is often of a penetrating nature. Anterior cord syndrome results from anterior compression such as occurs with a burst or teardrop fracture of the vertebral body; patients have bilateral motor loss, pain, and temperature loss with preservation of proprioception and vibratory sensation (posterior column function). The prognosis for recovery is generally poor. Posterior cord syndrome is rare and is associated with loss of posterior column function (proprioception and vibration). Northrup BE: Evaluation and early treatment of acute injuries to the spine and spinal cord, in Clark CR (ed): The Cervical Spine, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1998, pp 541-549.

Question 3510

Topic: 6. Spine

Which of the following is considered the most effective means of identifying an evolving motor tract injury during cervical spine surgery?

. Mean arterial blood pressure monitoring
. SSEP monitoring
. Free-run electromyography
. Transcranial motor monitoring (tceMEP)
. Wake-up test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transcranial motor monitoring (tceMEP)


Explanation

In a study of 427 patients undergoing cervical spine surgery, 12 patients demonstrated substantial or complete loss of amplitude of the tceMEPs. Ten of those patients had complete reversal of the loss following prompt intraoperative intervention. SSEP monitoring failed to identify any changes in one of the two patients that awoke with a new motor deficit. SSEP changes lagged behind the tceMEP changes in patients in which major changes were detected by both modalities. TceMEP monitoring was 100% sensitive and 100% specific. SSEP monitoring was only 25% sensitive and 100% specific.

Question 3511

Topic: 6. Spine

An 18-month-old boy has 45 degrees of kyphosis in the thoracolumbar spine secondary to type I congenital kyphosis. Examination reveals that he is neurologically intact, and an MRI scan shows no evidence of intraspinal pathology. Management should consist of

Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 5 - Figure 14

. in situ posterior fusion.
. in situ anterior and posterior fusion.
. observation and a follow-up examination in 6 months.
. bracing.
. anterior decompression and fusion with posterior fusion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. in situ posterior fusion.


Explanation

Surgery is indicated for congenital kyphosis once the deformity reaches a certain size or if significant progression is documented. In a young patient with a relatively small deformity, the treatment of choice is isolated in situ posterior fusion and postoperative immobilization. If an adequate posterior fusion can be obtained, an epiphyseodesis effect can be generated, allowing the remaining anterior growth to cause some correction. Because there is no evidence of neurologic compression and the deformity is less than 50 degrees, anterior surgery is not indicated. There is no role for bracing in the management of congenital kyphosis. Winter RB: Congenital Deformities of the Spine. New York, NY, Thieme-Stratton, 1983, pp 229-261.

Question 3512

Topic: 6. Spine

Figures 27a through 27c show the radiographs and CT scan of a 27-year-old man who sustained a low-velocity gunshot wound to the neck. He is quadriplegic (ASIA A), hemodynamically stable, and does not have drainage from his wound. After initial resuscitation and stabilization, the cervical spine and spinal cord injuries are best managed by

. wound debridement, anterior corpectomy, spinal cord decompression, dural repair, and anterior fusion with strut graft and anterior plating.
. wound debridement, anterior corpectomy, spinal cord decompression, dural repair, anterior fusion with strut graft and anterior plating followed by posterior laminectomy, and spinal cord decompression and dural repair with excision of the bullet fragment.
. wound debridement, anterior corpectomy, spinal cord decompression, dural repair, anterior fusion with strut graft and anterior plating followed by laminectomy and posterior fusion, and spinal cord decompression and dural repair with excision of the bullet fragment.
. laminectomy and posterior fusion, and spinal cord decompression and dural repair with excision of the bullet fragment.
. surgical treatment based on extraspinal pathology with orthotic treatment of the spinal fractures.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. surgical treatment based on extraspinal pathology with orthotic treatment of the spinal fractures.


Explanation

Although the spinal canal has been penetrated, the lateral masses are intact bilaterally with only partial destruction of the vertebral body and penetration of the lamina on one side, thus the cervical spine is not unstable and surgical stabilization is not indicated. Dural repair is not indicated since there is no external cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Surgical treatment should be based on the need to treat extraspinal pathology only. Bono CM, Heary RF: Gunshot wounds to the spine. Spine J 2004;4:230-240.

Question 3513

Topic: 6. Spine

A 12-year-old girl has back pain after falling 20 feet and landing in the sitting position. She has no fractures or other injuries, and her neurologic examination is normal. A lateral radiograph, transverse CT scan, and reformatted sagittal CT scan are shown in Figures 25a through 25c. Which of the following methods is associated with the best long-term outcome?

. Hyperextension casting of the thoracolumbar spine for 6 weeks
. In situ posterior fusion with instrumentation
. Posterior fusion with instrumentation, with sagittal plane correction
. Posterior decompression, followed by posterior fusion with instrumentation, with sagittal plane correction
. Anterior decompression and partial corpectomy, with anterior instrumentation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior fusion with instrumentation, with sagittal plane correction


Explanation

The patient has a displaced burst fracture. Fusion with instrumentation has shown better results than casting alone. Posterior fusion with instrumentation, with sagittal plane correction, yields the best results. Decompression occurs indirectly with correction of the kyphosis. Anterior decompression is unnecessary. Lalonde F, Letts M, Yang JP, et al: An analysis of burst fractures of the spine in adolescents. Am J Orthop 2001;30:115-120. Clark P, Letts M: Trauma to the thoracic and lumbar spine in the adolescent. Can J Surg 2001;44:337-345.

Question 3514

Topic: 6. Spine

Figures 54a and 54b show the radiograph and MRI scan of a 7-year-old boy who has a painful right thoracic scoliosis that measures 35 degrees. Neurologic examination is normal. Management should consist of

. repeat radiographs in 6 months.
. a technetium Tc 99m bone scan.
. posterior spinal fusion.
. anterior and posterior spinal fusion.
. a neurosurgical consultation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. a neurosurgical consultation.


Explanation

Because hydrosyringomyelia, with or without an Arnold-Chiari malformation, is now being recognized as the etiology of many infantile and juvenile idiopathic scolioses, management should consist of a neurosurgical consultation. Observation with follow-up radiographs is not an option in curves of this magnitude. A technitium Tc 99m bone scan is unnecessary because the etiology of the curve has been identified. Although spinal fusion may be needed in the future, it should not be undertaken before the neurosurgical problem has been addressed. Zadeh HG, Sakka SA, Powell MP, Mehta MH: Absent superficial abdominal reflexes in children with scoliosis: An early indicator of syringomyelia. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1995;77:762-767. Schwend RM, Hennrikus W, Hall JE, Emans JB: Childhood scoliosis: Clinical indications for magnetic resonance imaging. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:46-53.

Question 3515

Topic: 6. Spine

Figures 26a and 26b show the radiograph and MRI scan of an 18-year-old man who fell from a trampoline. Examination reveals exquisite local tenderness at the thoracolumbar junction, but he is neurologically intact. Management should consist of

. posterior fusion with instrumentation.
. posterior instrumentation without fusion.
. anterior fusion with instrumentation.
. an orthosis.
. bed rest with gradual mobilization.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. posterior fusion with instrumentation.


Explanation

Based on the radiographic findings of marked disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex with a relatively small anterior bony fracture, the patient has a classic Chance-type ligamentous flexion-distraction injury. The pathology is mostly in soft tissues with limited healing potential. The treatment of choice is posterior reconstruction of the tension band with a short segment fusion with instrumentation. Casting or bracing may result in a painful kyphosis with ligamentous insufficiency. The anterior bony column is mostly intact, so anterior reconstruction is not necessary. Carl AL: Adult spine trauma, in DeWald RL (ed): Spinal Deformities: A Comprehensive Text. New York, NY, Thieme, 2003, pp 406-423.

Question 3516

Topic: 6. Spine

A 32-year-old motorcycle rider is involved in a motor vehicle accident and radiographs show a burst fracture at L2 with 20 degrees of kyphosis. The neurologic examination is consistent with unilateral motor and sensory involvement of the L5, S1, S2, S3, and S4 nerve roots. He has no other injuries. CT demonstrates 20% anterior canal compromise with displaced laminar fractures at the level of injury. What is the best option for management of this patient?

. Bed rest for 6 weeks, followed by mobilization in a thoracolumbosacral orthosis until the fracture has healed
. Anterior corpectomy with strut grafting and placement of an anterior plate spanning L1 to L3
. Anterior corpectomy with strut grafting, followed by posterior spinal fusion and instrumentation
. Posterior spinal fusion and instrumentation from T11 to L4
. L2 laminectomy and posterior spinal fusion and instrumentation from T11 to L4

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior spinal fusion and instrumentation from T11 to L4


Explanation

The patient has a burst fracture with probable unilateral entrapment of the cauda equina within the elements of the fractured lamina. A dural tear is likely in this scenario as well. It is recommended that this type of burst fracture be treated surgically with laminectomy, freeing of the entrapped nerve roots, and dural repair followed by stabilization of the fracture by either a posterior or combined approach. The degree of kyphosis and the extent of anterior canal compromise does not warrant corpectomy in this patient. Therefore, after completing the laminectomy and dural repair, posterior fusion and instrumentation should be sufficient to stabilize the fracture. Cammisa FP Jr, Eismont FJ, Green BA: Dural laceration occurring with burst fractures and associated laminar fractures. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1989;71:1044-1052.

Question 3517

Topic: 6. Spine

A 40-year-old woman sustains a flexion injury to her neck. Physical examination is normal. A lateral radiograph of the cervical spine is shown in Figure 57a. MRI scans of the cervical spine are shown in Figures 57b and 57c. Treatment should include

. skeletal traction and reduction, followed by a halo jacket and nonsurgical stabilization.
. skeletal traction, closed reduction, and posterior fixation/fusion.
. skeletal traction, anterior decompression and fusion, followed by posterior stabilization and fusion.
. skeletal traction and surgical posterior fusion, followed by anterior decompression and fusion.
. general anesthesia, closed reduction, and a halo jacket for 3 to 4 months until stable.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. skeletal traction, closed reduction, and posterior fixation/fusion.


Explanation

This is a classic bilateral facet dislocation. When there is no evidence of a disk herniation, treatment should include careful skeletal traction, closed reduction, and posterior fusion. There is no role for anterior procedures. These fractures are unstable and require surgical intervention. Herkowitz HN, Garfin SR, Eismont FJ: Rothman-Simone The Spine, ed 5. Philadelphia, PA, Saunders Elsevier, 2006, pp 1120-1128.

Question 3518

Topic: 6. Spine

Figure 53 shows a thoracolumbar specimen as viewed from posterior to anterior following removal of all posterior elements. Which of the following structures does the red string pass under?

General Orthopedics 2026 Practice Questions: Set 13 (Solved) - Figure 18

. Diskovertebral ligament
. Posterior longitudinal ligament
. Cauda equina
. Batson's plexus
. Ligamentum flavum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ligamentum flavum


Explanation

The string passes under the ligamentum flavum as it runs from the posterior aspect of the vertebra above to the inferior aspect of the vertebra below in the sagittal midline. This is an important structure in diskectomy and in posterior approaches to the thoracolumbar spine and neural elements. It is rarely visualized in its entirety because typical exposures provide only a limited view.

Question 3519

Topic: 6. Spine

A 36-year-old man sustains a traumatic spondylolisthesis of L5 on S1. Surgical stabilization requires pedicular fixation into the sacrum. If the screw is placed in a medial to lateral direction and penetrates the sacral ala, what nerve root is at risk?

. L2
. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L5


Explanation

The L5 nerve root lies directly over the superior and anterior alae. If the screw is directed approximately 20 degrees laterally and bicortical purchase is achieved, there is the risk of injuring the L5 nerve root. If the screw is directed medially into the body of S1, there is little risk of injury. The same root is at risk during placement of an iliosacral screw. Ebraheim NA, et al: Lumbosacral nerve and dorsal screw placement. Orthopedics 2000;23:245-247. Ebraheim NA, Mermer M, Xu R, Yeasting RA: Radiological evaluation of S1 dorsal screw placement. J Spinal Disord 1996;9:527-535.

Question 3520

Topic: 6. Spine

A 27-year-old professional soccer player sustained an injury to his cervical spine in a collision with another player. Initially he was diagnosed with a right C6 radiculopathy that resolved with rest, anti-inflammatory medications, and physical therapy. Following a fall in a game, he noted a recurrence of neck pain without radicular signs or symptoms. Additional nonsurgical management over the past few months has failed to provide relief. A cervical MRI scan shows a right-sided C5-6 herniation without any evidence of disk disease at other cervical levels. The patient desires to continue his career as a professional soccer player. What treatment offers the best long-term option for return to play?

. Right-sided posterior keyhole foraminotomy at C5-6
. Transforaminal epidural steroid injection at C5-6
. Single-level C5-6 anterior cervical fusion
. Posterior C5-6 fusion
. Continued nonsurgical management and counseling that his career as a professional athlete is over

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Single-level C5-6 anterior cervical fusion


Explanation

The patient has chronic neck pain that is affecting his career as a professional soccer player. Although he had signs and symptoms of a right C6 radiculopathy, neck pain is his only current symptom. Therefore, procedures to address the relief of radiculopathy (keyhole foraminotomy and transforaminal epidural steroid injection) are likely to be ineffective. Although Watkins and others have described continuing nonsurgical management for symptomatic herniated disks and return to play only when asymptomatic, the patient has not found relief with these modalities. A single-level cervical fusion (either postoperative or congenital) generally is not considered a contraindication for return to play in collision or contact sports. Therefore, anterior cervical fusion at C5-6 offers the best long-term option for return to play. Watkins RG: Cervical spine injuries in athletes, in Clark CR (ed): The Cervical Spine, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, pp 373-386. Watkins RG: Neck injuries in football players. Clin Sports Med 1986;5:215-246. Morganti C, Sweeney CA, Albanese SA, et al: Return to play after cervical spine injury. Spine 2001;26:1131-1136.