This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 6. Spine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3201
Topic: 6. Spine
A 68-year-old man presents with progressive difficulty buttoning his shirts and a wide-based, unsteady gait. He denies neck pain but notes occasional shock-like sensations radiating down his spine with neck flexion. On physical examination, tapping the distal phalanx of the middle finger results in spontaneous flexion of the thumb and index finger. Which of the following examination findings is considered the most specific for his likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inverted brachioradialis reflex
Explanation
The patient's presentation is highly suspicious for cervical spondylotic myelopathy (CSM). He demonstrates a positive Hoffmann reflex and Lhermitte's sign. While the Hoffmann reflex is highly sensitive for upper motor neuron pathology in the cervical spine, it is not highly specific and can be present in asymptomatic individuals. The inverted brachioradialis reflex (striking the brachioradialis tendon produces finger flexion rather than elbow flexion/supination) is highly specific for cervical myelopathy at the C5-C6 level and indicates a combined upper and lower motor neuron lesion at that specific segment.
Question 3202
Topic: 6. Spine
A 35-year-old male presents after a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Radiographs show a traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis with severe angulation and minimal translation. The fracture line is oblique. According to the Levine and Edwards classification (Type IIA), what is the most critical management principle during initial stabilization?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Avoidance of cervical traction and use of a halo vest with mild compression
Explanation
A Levine and Edwards Type IIA Hangman's fracture is characterized by severe angulation with minimal translation and an oblique fracture line. The mechanism of injury is flexion-distraction. Because the anterior longitudinal ligament and the C2-C3 disc are completely disrupted, applying cervical traction is strictly contraindicated as it will distract the fracture site and worsen the deformity. The correct treatment is gentle reduction in extension with mild compression, followed by immobilization in a halo vest.
Question 3203
Topic: 6. Spine
A 65-year-old male with type II diabetes presents with progressive stiffness of his thoracic and lumbar spine. Radiographs demonstrate flowing ossification along the anterolateral aspect of four contiguous vertebral bodies. The sacroiliac joints are preserved, and disc heights are relatively normal. What is the most common metabolic abnormality associated with this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hyperinsulinemia
Explanation
The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis (DISH), characterized by flowing ossification of at least four contiguous vertebral bodies with preserved disc height and absent sacroiliitis. DISH is strongly associated with metabolic syndrome, type II diabetes mellitus, obesity, and specifically hyperinsulinemia, which is believed to stimulate osteoblast proliferation and bone formation.
Question 3204
Topic: 6. Spine
A 30-year-old male is evaluated in the trauma bay following a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Cervical spine imaging demonstrates a traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture). The C2-C3 disc space is widened posteriorly with severe angulation, but there is minimal anterior translation of C2 on C3. This injury pattern is classified as a Levine and Edwards Type IIA fracture. Which of the following interventions is strictly contraindicated in the acute management of this fracture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cervical traction
Explanation
A Levine and Edwards Type IIA Hangman's fracture is a flexion-distraction injury characterized by severe angulation with minimal translation and an intact anterior longitudinal ligament. Applying cervical traction is strictly contraindicated in Type IIA fractures because it worsens the deformity by further distracting the posterior disc space and potentially distracting the fracture site catastrophically. Treatment usually involves closed reduction (gentle extension and compression) and application of a halo vest.
Question 3205
Topic: 6. Spine
A 68-year-old male presents with bilateral lower extremity pain, heaviness, and cramping that occurs reliably after walking two blocks. The patient's history is evaluated to differentiate between neurogenic claudication (due to lumbar spinal stenosis) and vascular claudication (due to peripheral arterial disease). Which of the following findings most specifically suggests neurogenic claudication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pain is exacerbated by walking downhill compared to walking uphill
Explanation
Neurogenic claudication is characteristically position-dependent. Extension of the lumbar spine decreases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal and neural foramina, exacerbating compression. Walking downhill forces the spine into extension, making symptoms worse in neurogenic claudication. Walking uphill, leaning on a shopping cart, or sitting flexes the spine, enlarging the canal and relieving symptoms. Vascular claudication is demand-dependent (exacerbated by walking uphill due to increased muscular oxygen demand) and quickly relieved by simply standing still.
Question 3206
Topic: 6. Spine
A 65-year-old male presents with worsening hand clumsiness, frequent dropping of objects, and a broad-based, unsteady gait. On examination, he has a positive Hoffmann sign and hyperreflexia in his lower extremities. An MRI of the cervical spine reveals severe canal stenosis at C4-C5 and C5-C6. Which of the following MRI findings is considered the most specific indicator of a poor prognosis for neurologic recovery following surgical decompression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. T1-weighted hypointensity within the spinal cord
Explanation
T1-weighted hypointensity (representing myelomalacia, necrosis, or cyst formation) is the most specific MRI finding for a poor prognosis in cervical spondylotic myelopathy. While T2-weighted hyperintensity indicates cord edema or inflammation and can be reversible, T1 hypointensity represents permanent structural damage to the spinal cord.
Question 3207
Topic: 6. Spine
A 22-year-old male dives into shallow water and strikes his head. Imaging reveals a C5 burst fracture with significant canal compromise. On neurologic examination, he has absent motor function in the bilateral upper extremities distal to C5 and absent motor function in the lower extremities. He has no sensation to pinprick or light touch below C5, but he has intact perianal sensation and voluntary anal sphincter contraction. What is his American Spinal Injury Association (ASIA) Impairment Scale grade?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. ASIA B
Explanation
The ASIA Impairment Scale evaluates the severity of spinal cord injuries. The presence of perianal sensation (sacral sparing) or voluntary anal contraction means the injury is incomplete. Because he has sensory preservation below the neurologic level (including S4-S5) but no motor function extending more than three levels below the motor level, he is classified as ASIA B (Sensory Incomplete, Motor Complete).
Question 3208
Topic: 6. Spine
A 25-year-old male presents after a motor vehicle collision. Imaging reveals a traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis.
Radiographs show a fracture through the pars interarticularis of C2 with severe angulation and minimal translation, without facet dislocation. Applying axial traction causes the fracture gap to widen. Based on the Levine and Edwards classification, what is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Gentle compression in extension followed by halo vest immobilization
Explanation
The patient has a Levine-Edwards Type IIA Hangman's fracture, characterized by severe angulation and minimal translation without facet dislocation. Because the mechanism involves flexion-distraction, applying axial traction is contraindicated as it will widen the fracture gap and potentially cause neurologic injury. The appropriate treatment is gentle compression in extension, followed by placement in a halo vest.
Question 3209
Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 16-year-old gymnast complains of chronic low back pain exacerbated by extension. Radiographs and subsequent MRI show a unilateral pars interarticularis defect at L5 without evidence of spondylolisthesis.
She has failed 6 months of structured conservative management including bracing and physical therapy. She strongly wishes to return to competitive gymnastics. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Direct surgical repair of the pars interarticularis (e.g., pedicle screw-hook construct)
Explanation
In young, active patients (like athletes) with symptomatic spondylolysis (pars defect) who fail nonoperative treatment and do not have a significant spondylolisthesis, direct pars repair is the procedure of choice. Techniques include the Buck procedure (direct lag screw), Scott wiring, or a pedicle screw-laminar hook construct. This preserves the motion segment and allows a higher rate of return to sports compared to fusion.
Question 3210
Topic: 6. Spine
A 35-year-old male is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Lateral cervical spine radiographs and CT reveal a Levine-Edwards Type IIA traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture). What is the primary mechanism of injury for this specific fracture subtype?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexion and distraction
Explanation
The Levine-Edwards classification for Hangman's fractures (traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis) is based on mechanism. Type I is hyperextension-axial loading. Type II is hyperextension-axial loading followed by severe flexion. Type IIA is flexion-distraction, characterized by minimal translation but severe angulation, and the disc space is often widened posteriorly. Type IIA fractures are unstable in traction, which is a critical clinical pearl; traction will exacerbate the deformity. Type III is flexion-compression.
Question 3211
Topic: 6. Spine
A 45-year-old male presents with severe, radiating leg pain. An MRI of the lumbar spine is obtained.
Imaging demonstrates a 'far lateral' (extraforaminal) disc herniation at the L4-L5 level. Which nerve root is most likely to be directly compressed by this specific type of herniation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L4 nerve root
Explanation
In the lumbar spine, a classic posterolateral (paracentral) disc herniation affects the traversing nerve root (e.g., L4-L5 disc affects the L5 root). However, a 'far lateral' or extraforaminal disc herniation affects the exiting nerve root at that same level. Therefore, a far lateral disc herniation at L4-L5 will compress the exiting L4 nerve root, causing weakness in knee extension and anterior thigh pain.
Question 3212
Topic: 6. Spine
A 68-year-old male presents with progressive hand clumsiness and gait imbalance over the past year. Examination reveals a positive Hoffmann sign bilaterally and hyperreflexia in the lower extremities. MRI of the cervical spine demonstrates severe spinal canal stenosis at C4-C5 and C5-C6. Which of the following specific MRI findings in the spinal cord is most strongly associated with a poor prognosis for neurologic recovery following surgical decompression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. T1 hypointensity combined with T2 hyperintensity
Explanation
In cervical spondylotic myelopathy, the presence of T1 hypointensity combined with T2 hyperintensity in the spinal cord indicates myelomalacia (permanent cystic necrosis/gliosis of the cord). This finding is strongly correlated with a poor prognosis for neurologic recovery even after adequate surgical decompression. T2 hyperintensity alone may indicate reversible edema.
Question 3213
Topic: 6. Spine
A 75-year-old male with severe neurogenic claudication secondary to multilevel lumbar spinal stenosis is considering surgical intervention after failing 6 months of conservative treatment. Which of the following preoperative clinical features is most predictive of a highly successful outcome following a lumbar laminectomy and decompression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Predominance of radicular leg pain and claudication over axial back pain
Explanation
In patients with lumbar spinal stenosis, decompression surgery (laminectomy) is highly effective at relieving radicular leg pain and neurogenic claudication. Patients whose primary complaint is axial back pain often have poorer outcomes, as decompression alone does not address back pain reliably.
Question 3214
Topic: 6. Spine
A 65-year-old male presents with deteriorating hand dexterity and gait imbalance. On physical examination, tapping the distal brachioradialis tendon results in diminished reflex elbow flexion, but elicits spontaneous flexion of the ipsilateral fingers. This physical exam finding localizes the spinal cord pathology to which of the following levels?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C5-C6
Explanation
The inverted brachioradialis reflex is a specific clinical sign for cervical spondylotic myelopathy. It consists of an absent or diminished brachioradialis reflex (a lower motor neuron finding at C5-C6) coupled with hyperactive finger flexion (an upper motor neuron finding for levels below C6). This combination localizes the primary compressive pathology to the C5-C6 level.
Question 3215
Topic: 6. Spine
A 28-year-old male falls from a height and sustains a thoracolumbar spinal fracture. A CT scan confirms a burst fracture at L1. According to the Denis three-column theory of spinal stability, a burst fracture is characterized by the biomechanical failure of which columns under an axial load?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior and middle columns
Explanation
According to the Denis classification system, spinal stability is assessed using a three-column model. The anterior column consists of the anterior longitudinal ligament and the anterior half of the vertebral body/disc. The middle column comprises the posterior half of the body/disc and the posterior longitudinal ligament. The posterior column includes the pedicles, facets, and posterior ligamentous complex. A burst fracture, resulting from axial loading, involves failure of both the anterior and middle columns, potentially retropulsing bone fragments into the spinal canal.
Question 3216
Topic: 6. Spine
A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with back pain, fever, and progressive bilateral lower extremity weakness. MRI reveals a spinal epidural abscess compressing the thoracic spinal cord. What is the most common causative organism?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common organism isolated in spinal epidural abscesses, accounting for more than 60% of cases. Immediate surgical decompression and targeted intravenous antibiotics are standard of care, especially when neurological deficits are present.
Question 3217
Topic: 6. Spine
A 72-year-old male presents with worsening hand clumsiness, frequent falls, and a broad-based gait. Physical examination reveals a positive Hoffmann sign bilaterally.
An MRI of the cervical spine is obtained. Which of the following MRI signal characteristics within the spinal cord is most strongly associated with a poor prognosis for neurologic recovery following surgical decompression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Combined T1 hypointensity and T2 hyperintensity
Explanation
In the setting of cervical spondylotic myelopathy (CSM), MRI changes in the spinal cord can have prognostic significance. T2 hyperintensity alone generally signifies edema and reversible changes, portending a relatively fair to good prognosis. However, T1 hypointensity combined with T2 hyperintensity reflects myelomalacia, cystic necrosis, and permanent spinal cord damage, which is a strong predictor of poor functional outcome and limited neurologic recovery post-operatively.
Question 3218
Topic: 6. Spine
A 68-year-old male complains of bilateral posterior leg pain when walking. You are attempting to differentiate neurogenic claudication (due to lumbar spinal stenosis) from vascular claudication. Which of the following is most characteristic of neurogenic claudication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Normal pedal pulses with symptoms relieved by lumbar flexion (e.g., sitting or leaning forward)
Explanation
Neurogenic claudication classicially improves with lumbar flexion (e.g., leaning over a shopping cart, sitting) because flexion increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal, relieving neural compression. Stationary cycling in a flexed posture typically does not reproduce symptoms (unlike vascular claudication, which is tied purely to muscle oxygen demand). Neurogenic pain usually radiates proximal to distal, whereas vascular often radiates distal to proximal (calf first). Normal pedal pulses further favor a neurogenic etiology.
Question 3219
Topic: 6. Spine
A 68-year-old male presents with worsening hand clumsiness, frequent falls, and a broad-based shuffling gait. Examination reveals hyperreflexia and a positive Hoffmann's sign bilaterally.
MRI demonstrates severe multilevel cervical stenosis from C3 to C6 with intramedullary T2 signal hyperintensity. Standing radiographs show a rigid, 25-degree cervical kyphotic deformity. What is the most appropriate surgical approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Combined anterior corpectomy and posterior instrumented fusion
Explanation
This patient has cervical spondylotic myelopathy with a rigid kyphotic deformity. A posterior-only indirect decompression (laminectomy or laminoplasty) is contraindicated in the setting of rigid kyphosis because the spinal cord will remain draped over the anterior compressive pathology (it cannot 'drift back'). An anterior approach allows direct decompression, but multilevel anterior corpectomies alone carry a high risk of graft dislodgment and pseudarthrosis. Therefore, a combined anterior-posterior approach (anterior decompression/reconstruction + posterior instrumented fusion) provides the most definitive decompression and mechanical stability.
Question 3220
Topic: 6. Spine
A 40-year-old male construction worker falls 15 feet from scaffolding. He is neurologically entirely intact. CT imaging of the spine reveals a burst fracture of L1 with 40% retropulsion into the spinal canal and 15 degrees of regional kyphosis. MRI reveals an intact posterior ligamentous complex (PLC). Using the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity Score (TLICS), what is his calculated score and the recommended treatment approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Score 2; Non-operative management
Explanation
The TLICS score is based on three categories: injury morphology, neurological status, and PLC integrity. Morphology: Burst fracture = 2 points. Neurological status: Intact = 0 points. PLC: Intact = 0 points. Total score = 2. A TLICS score of <=3 is an indication for non-operative management (e.g., bracing/TLSO). A score of 4 is indeterminate (surgeon preference), and a score >=5 is an indication for operative stabilization.
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