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Question 2681

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old male with long-standing ankylosing spondylitis sustains a low-energy mechanical fall and complains of new-onset severe neck pain without neurologic deficit. Initial plain radiographs of the cervical spine are read as negative. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Discharge with a soft cervical collar and oral analgesics
. Perform dynamic flexion-extension radiographs
. Obtain a CT scan of the cervical spine
. Prescribe physical therapy for neck strengthening
. Perform an MRI of the brain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Discharge with a soft cervical collar and oral analgesics


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis are highly susceptible to highly unstable shear fractures of the cervical spine even after minor trauma. Because these fractures are easily missed on plain radiographs due to altered anatomy, a CT scan is mandatory for any AS patient presenting with neck pain after a fall.

Question 2682

Topic: 6. Spine

What are the most likely examination findings of the patient with the images shown in Figures 94a and 94b? A B

. Diminished sensation over the distal anterior thigh and medial leg with quadriceps and anterior tibialis weakness and a diminished patellar tendon reflex on the left
. Diminished sensation over the posterior leg, lateral leg, and plantar foot with weakness of plantar flexion and a diminished Achilles tendon reflex on the right
. Diminished sensation over the lateral leg and dorsal foot with anterior tibialis and extensor hallucis longus and anterior tibialis weakness on the left 4- Diminished sensation over the lateral leg and dorsal foot with anterior tibialis and extensor hallucis longus and anterior tibialis weakness on the right

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Diminished sensation over the distal anterior thigh and medial leg with quadriceps and anterior tibialis weakness and a diminished patellar tendon reflex on the left


Explanation

DISCUSSIONThe findings on MR imaging reveal a right-sided L4-L5 disk extrusion with cephalad migration of the disk fragment. The axial image shows marked displacement of the traversing right L5 nerve root. The physical findings noted in Response 4 above are typical of a right L5 sensory and motor radiculopathy that would be associated with this level of disk extrusion. Although an extrusion at this level can affect the exiting L4 nerve root resulting in an L4 radiculopathy as described in Response 1, the findings described in this response are contralateral to the disk herniation and not likely to be present. The other responses describe findings associated with left and right S1 radiculopathy, which more typically are associated with an L5-S1 disk herniation/extrusionRECOMMENDED READINGSHoppenfeld S: Orthopaedic Neurology: A Diagnostic Guide to Neurologic Levels. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1977, pp 7-49.Haak MH. History and physical examination. In: Spivak JM, Connolly PJ, eds. Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 3. Rosemont, IL: American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons; 2006:43-55.

Question 2683

Topic: 6. Spine

A 66-year-old male with a history of long-segment lumbar spine fusion (L2-S1) presents for a primary total hip arthroplasty (THA) for end-stage osteoarthritis. Which of the following adjustments to the acetabular component orientation is most appropriate to minimize the risk of posterior dislocation when the patient transitions from standing to sitting?

. Decrease the anteversion of the acetabular cup.
. Increase the anteversion of the acetabular cup.
. Decrease the inclination of the acetabular cup.
. Maintain a strictly neutral (0 degrees) anteversion.
. Utilize a standard 'safe zone' of 15 degrees anteversion and 40 degrees inclination.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increase the anteversion of the acetabular cup.


Explanation

During the transition from standing to sitting, a normal pelvis retroverts (tilts backward), which functionally increases the anteversion of the acetabulum, providing clearance for the femur and preventing anterior impingement/posterior dislocation. In a patient with a stiff lumbar spine (e.g., prior fusion or ankylosing spondylitis), this dynamic pelvic retroversion does not occur. As a result, the functional anteversion of the cup remains fixed, predisposing the anterior femoral neck to impinge on the anterior rim of the cup, levering the head out posteriorly. To compensate for this lack of dynamic pelvic mobility, the surgeon should intentionally increase the operative anteversion (and often inclination) of the acetabular component to prevent posterior dislocation in flexion.

Question 2684

Topic: 6. Spine

A 68-year-old male is scheduled to undergo a total hip arthroplasty (THA). He previously underwent a T10-to-pelvis posterior spinal fusion. Which of the following describes the most likely spinopelvic kinematics when this patient transitions from a standing to a seated position, and what is the corresponding implication for acetabular component positioning?

. The pelvis hyper-retroverts; the cup should be placed in less anteversion.
. The pelvis fails to retrovert; the cup should be placed in increased anteversion.
. The pelvis hyper-anteverts; the cup should be placed in increased inclination.
. The pelvis fails to antevert; the cup should be placed in standard safe zone alignment.
. The pelvis exhibits normal sagittal motion; standard safe zone alignment is appropriate.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The pelvis hyper-retroverts; the cup should be placed in less anteversion.


Explanation

Patients with a long lumbar fusion to the pelvis have a 'stiff spine' and lose normal spinopelvic mobility. Normally, when moving from standing to sitting, the lumbar spine flexes and the pelvis tilts posteriorly (retroverts), functionally increasing acetabular anteversion to accommodate hip flexion and prevent anterior impingement. In a stiff, fused spine, the pelvis fails to retrovert upon sitting. This lack of dynamic functional anteversion leads to anterior impingement of the femur on the acetabulum during sitting, which dramatically increases the risk of posterior dislocation. To compensate, the surgeon must place the acetabular component in higher combined anteversion and slightly higher inclination than standard targets.

Question 2685

Topic: 6. Spine
A 21-year-old woman who was wearing a seat belt sustained an injury of the thoracolumbar junction in a motor vehicle accident. The AP radiograph shows widening between the L1 and L2 spinous processes, and the CT scan shows the empty facet sign at this level. The initial evaluation should include
. CT of the abdomen.
. MRI of the cervical spine.
. a bone scan for occult fracture.
. radiographs of the hands and feet.
. electromyography to assess neurologic function.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CT of the abdomen.


Explanation

The patient has a flexion-distraction injury of the thoracolumbar spine that is often associated with wearing a seat belt. The fracture has a high risk of associated intra-abdominal injury; therefore, the initial evaluation should include a CT of the abdomen. The most common visceral injury is to the bowel.

Question 2686

Topic: 6. Spine
A 23-year-old man sustains a unilateral jumped facet with an isolated cervical root injury in a motor vehicle accident. Acute reduction results in some initial improvement of his motor weakness. Over the next 48 hours, examination reveals ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in his face, limbs, and trunk, as well as nystagmus, tinnitus, and diplopia. What is the most likely etiology for these changes?
. Intracranial hemorrhage
. Epidural hematoma
. Unrecognized disk extrusion
. Delayed spinal cord hemorrhage
. Vertebral artery injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vertebral artery injury


Explanation

The patient is showing signs of vertebral artery stroke. The signs of Wallenberg syndrome include those listed above, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation throughout the body, an ipsilateral Hornerโ€™s syndrome, dysphagia, and ataxia. Vertebral artery injuries are not unusual in significant cervical facet injuries. A lesion in the cervical spinal cord is not associated with these symptoms, and an intracranial hemorrhage from trauma is unlikely to present in this manner.

Question 2687

Topic: 6. Spine
The photomicrograph shows a repaired dural tear 4 days after surgery. The material interposed between the dural edges (D) is composed of
. fibroblasts.
. dural remnants.
. pia-arachnoid membrane.
. scar tissue.
. neural elements.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. pia-arachnoid membrane.


Explanation

During the initial healing phases of a dural tear, pia and arachnoid from adjacent nerve roots migrate, fill the dural defect, and create a pia-arachnoid plug. It is this initial plugging of the defect that is believed to prevent further egress of cerebrospinal fluid through the defect. The plug has been shown to develop by the second postoperative day. Fibroblastic proliferation occurs within the dura itself and accounts for the bulbous ends of the dura seen in the photomicrograph. The appearance of the material within the dural edges is inconsistent with the appearance of neural elements, and scar tissue formation occurs later in the healing process.

Question 2688

Topic: 6. Spine
A 35-year-old female sustains a U-type sacral fracture extending through the central sacral canal (Denis Zone III). Based on this specific fracture classification, she is most at risk for which of the following neurologic deficits?
. Isolated L5 nerve root palsy
. Bowel and bladder dysfunction
. Unilateral foot drop
. Loss of active knee extension
. Weakness in hip flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bowel and bladder dysfunction


Explanation

Denis Zone III sacral fractures involve the central sacral canal. These injuries carry a high risk (up to 60%) of cauda equina syndrome, presenting as bowel, bladder, and sexual dysfunction.

Question 2689

Topic: 6. Spine
A 25-year-old male is involved in a severe crush injury resulting in a Denis Zone III sacral fracture. Which of the following neurologic deficits is most specifically characteristic of this injury pattern?
. Weakness of hip flexion
. Loss of active knee extension
. Isolated unilateral foot drop
. Bowel, bladder, and sexual dysfunction
. Loss of sensation over the anterolateral thigh

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bowel, bladder, and sexual dysfunction


Explanation

Denis Zone III sacral fractures involve the central sacral canal and carry a very high risk (>50%) of cauda equina syndrome. Injury to the lower sacral nerve roots classically results in saddle anesthesia, as well as bowel, bladder, and sexual dysfunction.

Question 2690

Topic: 6. Spine
Figure 32 shows the T2-weighted MR image through the L4-5 level of a 60-year-old man who has new-onset acute right lower-extremity pain and numbness and weakness in his right quadriceps muscle. The arrow in Figure 32 is pointing to which structure?
. Lumbar synovial cyst
. Dorsal root ganglion
. Herniated nucleus pulposus
. Ligamentum flavum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Herniated nucleus pulposus


Explanation

The arrow is pointing to a structure of medium signal intensity that is equivalent to the nucleus pulposus on T2-weighted sequencing. This represents a foraminal disk herniation. A lumbar synovial cyst would display high-signal intensity on T2-weighted sequencing. Lumbar synovial cysts arise from the facet joints as a result of facet joint degeneration and may be a source of nerve root compression. The dorsal root ganglion is a collection of sensory nerve cell bodies and can be seen just dorsal and lateral to the disk herniation in Figure 32. The ligamentum flavum is located on the ventral surface of the laminae and attaches between the laminae of adjacent vertebrae.

Question 2691

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old female with long-standing ankylosing spondylitis and a completely fused lumbar spine is undergoing a primary THA. How does her lack of spino-pelvic mobility dictate the optimal intraoperative positioning of her acetabular component to prevent dislocation?

. The cup should be placed in more anteversion than standard
. The cup should be placed in less anteversion than standard
. The cup should be placed in more retroversion than standard
. The cup should be placed with 0 degrees of anteversion
. Standard positioning of 15 degrees anteversion is optimal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The cup should be placed in more anteversion than standard


Explanation

A normal spine allows the pelvis to tilt posteriorly during sitting, dynamically increasing functional acetabular anteversion and preventing anterior impingement. A fused spine fails to tilt posteriorly. To compensate and prevent posterior dislocation while seated, the cup must be placed in a higher degree of anteversion than standard.

Question 2692

Topic: 6. Spine

A 70-year-old female undergoes TKA for a severe, rigid 20-degree valgus deformity. In the recovery room, she is unable to dorsiflex her ankle or extend her toes, and has numbness in the first web space of her foot. What is the most appropriate initial management step?

. Immediate return to the operating room for surgical exploration of the peroneal nerve
. Remove all compressive dressings, flex the knee to 20-30 degrees, and monitor closely
. Obtain an urgent MRI of the lumbar spine to rule out L5 radiculopathy
. Apply a rigid ankle-foot orthosis (AFO) and initiate physical therapy
. Perform a closed manipulation under anesthesia to stretch the posterior capsule

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Remove all compressive dressings, flex the knee to 20-30 degrees, and monitor closely


Explanation

Postoperative peroneal nerve palsy after correction of a severe valgus deformity is often due to traction. Initial management involves relieving tension on the nerve by removing constrictive dressings and flexing the knee.

Question 2693

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old male with long-standing ankylosing spondylitis and a fully fused lumbar spine in a flattened (loss of lordosis) position requires a THA. How should the acetabular component position be adjusted to minimize the risk of posterior dislocation?

. Increase cup anteversion and inclination
. Decrease cup anteversion and inclination
. Place the cup in standard 15 degrees of anteversion and 40 degrees of inclination
. Use a constrained liner with decreased inclination
. Increase cup retroversion to match the flattened spine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increase cup anteversion and inclination


Explanation

Patients with a fused flatback lack normal spinopelvic mobility and cannot increase pelvic tilt when sitting, leading to relative acetabular retroversion and a high risk of posterior dislocation. Compensating by placing the cup in higher anteversion and inclination helps accommodate sitting clearance.

Question 2694

Topic: 6. Spine

A 62-year-old male with long-standing ankylosing spondylitis is planned for a primary total hip arthroplasty (THA). Radiographs show a completely fused lumbar spine to the sacrum. How does this spinopelvic stiffness affect optimal acetabular cup positioning compared to a patient with normal spinopelvic mobility?

. The cup requires less anteversion to prevent anterior dislocation in the standing position.
. The cup requires more anteversion to prevent posterior dislocation in the sitting position.
. The cup requires less anteversion to prevent posterior dislocation in the sitting position.
. Standard positioning is indicated as spinopelvic stiffness only affects inclination.
. The cup requires decreased inclination and less anteversion to optimize stability.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The cup requires more anteversion to prevent posterior dislocation in the sitting position.


Explanation

Patients with a stiff spinopelvic junction lack the normal posterior pelvic tilt when transitioning from standing to sitting. This lack of tilt fails to functionally increase acetabular anteversion, leading to anterior impingement and posterior dislocation; thus, more anteversion is often required.

Question 2695

Topic: 6. Spine

Genetic mutations that may result in the cervical abnormalities noted in the figures generally affect the

. embryonic process of neurulation.
. embryonic process of gastrulation.
. segmentation or resegmentation of somites.
. differentiation of somites into sclerotome, myotome, and dermatome segments.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. segmentation or resegmentation of somites.


Explanation

DISCUSSIONThe figures are characteristic of a child with Klippel-Feil syndrome (congenital cervical spine abnormalities) in association with congenital scoliosis in the upper thoracic spine and a right-sided Sprengel deformity (congenital elevation of the scapula). Sprengel deformity occurs in as many as 30% of children with Klippel-Feil syndrome. Other congenital conditions that are commonly associated with Klippel-Feil, and that should be screened for, include deafness in 30%, genitourinary abnormalities in 25% to 35%, and cardiovascular abnormalities in 4% to 29% of children with Klippel-Feil syndrome.In Sprengel deformity, there is usually a tether called the omovertebral connection between the abnormally elevated scapula and the spinous processes in the upper thoracic region. This tether is most commonly bony but also may be cartilaginous or fibrous. Although there also may be abnormalities in the ribs, clavicle, or humerus, they are morphologic abnormalities only, not tethers.Patients with Klippel-Feil syndrome should be discouraged from participating in contact or collision sports if they have a massive fusion of the cervical spine, any involvement of C2, or limited cervical motion. Fusions at 1 or 2 interspaces below C3 and normal cervical motion do not preclude participation in activities. A Sprengel deformity may limit abduction of the shoulder and normal racquet or throwing mechanics, but, in the absence of pain, is not a contraindication to attempted participation.Klippel-Feil syndrome affects a heterogenous cohort of patients and different inheritance patterns have been seen, including autosomal-dominant and autosomal-recessive types, with varying levels of penetrance. The first human Klippel-Feil syndrome locus was identified on chromosome 8 and is called SGM1. Other candidates for mutations in Klippel-Feil include PAX genes and Notch pathway genes. In general, the involved genes help regulate the formation and segmentation of the vertebrae.Between days 20 and 30 following conception, the paraxial mesoderm subdivides into segments called somites. As they mature, somites develop into 3 layers called the sclerotome, myotome, and dermatome. The sclerotome undergoes a process of resegmentation during which the caudal section from 1 somite joins with the rostral section of the immediately caudal somite to form the vertebral bodies. It is during the processes of segmentation and resegmentation that the abnormalities leading to Klippel-Feil syndrome occur. Gastrulation refers to the phase early in embryonic development when the single-layered blastula is reorganized into a trilaminar structure with 3 germ layers: the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. Neurulation refers to the process by which the notochord induces formation of the neural tube from the neural plate, forming the brain and spinal cord.

Question 2696

Topic: 6. Spine
A 14-year-old competitive gymnast has had activity-related low back pain for the past month. Examination reveals no pain with forward flexion, but she has some discomfort when resuming an upright position. She also has pain with extension and lateral bending of the spine. The neurologic examination is normal. Popliteal angles measure 20 degrees. AP, lateral, and oblique views of the lumbar spine are negative. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
. Referral to a pain clinic
. MRI
. CBC, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and C-reactive protein
. Single photon emission computer tomography (SPECT)
. Electromyography and nerve conduction velocity studies

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Single photon emission computer tomography (SPECT)


Explanation

Symptoms of activity-related low back pain, physical findings of pain with extension, lateral bending, and resuming an upright position, and relative hamstring tightness are consistent with spondylolysis. While the initial diagnostic work-up should include plain radiographs of the lumbosacral spine, the findings may be negative because it can take weeks or months for the characteristic changes to become apparent. SPECT has been a useful adjunct in the diagnosis of spondylolysis when plain radiographs are negative.

Question 2697

Topic: 6. Spine
A 14-year-old girl with a right thoracic curve from T4 through L2 measuring 78 degrees is scheduled to undergo posterior spinal fusion for scoliosis. The surgical plan is to fuse from T3 through L2, using pedicle screws at L2 and about the apex at T8. What neural monitoring modality is most likely to identify a reversible neurologic deficit during surgery?
. Electromyography following stimulation of the lumbar pedicle screws
. Electromyography with stimulation of the thoracic pedicle screw
. Motor-evoked potentials of the lower extremities
. Somatosensory-evoked potentials of the upper extremities
. Somatosensory-evoked potentials of the lower extremities

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Motor-evoked potentials of the lower extremities


Explanation

Neural monitoring during scoliosis surgery was initially developed to avoid the devastating effects of spinal cord injury, particularly paraplegia. Somatosensory-evoked potentials in the lower extremities will detect many but not all neurologic difficulties with the spinal cord. Anterior spinal cord vascular disruption also can be detected by monitoring motor potentials. Electromyography following stimulation of lumbar pedicle screws can prevent nerve root injury that is the result of misplacement of the screws. This is best documented in the lumbar spine and has not been routinely used in the thoracic spine. The most common neural deficits following spinal surgery, however, are in the upper extremities because of the positioning of the patient in the prone position for long periods. In Schwartz and associates' series of 500 patients, impending upper extremity neural injury was detected by somatosensory-evoked potentials in 18 (3.6%) patients. In contrast, lower extremity deficits were detected by combined motor- and sensory-evoked potentials in only 2 (0.4%) out of 500 patients in Padberg and associates' series. Neural compression in the upper extremity can be easily detected by somatosensory-evoked potentials, and injury can be prevented by repositioning the patient.

Question 2698

Topic: 6. Spine
A 51-year-old woman with no preoperative neurologic deficit is undergoing elective anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion (ACDF) with plating and fusion for a C5-6 disk herniation with right-sided neck pain. Thirty minutes into the surgery the neurophysiologic monitoring shows a rapid drop and then loss of amplitude in the right cortical somatosensory-evoked potential waveform. All other waveforms remained normal and unchanged, including right-sided cervical (subcortical) and peripheral (Erbโ€™s point), and those from the left-sided upper extremity and both lower extremities. What is the most likely cause of the change?
. Electrode placement
. Stimulation failure
. Anesthetic effect
. Cord ischemia from retraction
. Cerebral ischemia from retraction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cerebral ischemia from retraction


Explanation

The change noted is focal and confined to the cortex, sparing the opposite side, both lower extremities, and the subcortical waveforms, making all the choices unlikely with the exception of carotid compression with focal cortical ischemia. This may be associated with poor collateral flow from the opposite hemisphere due to an incomplete circle of Willis.

Question 2699

Topic: 6. Spine
Contraindications to cervical laminectomy as a treatment for cervical spondylotic myelopathy include which of the following findings?
. Multilevel disease with spinal cord compression
. Anterior spinal cord compression
. Posterior spinal cord compression
. Cervical kyphosis
. Ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cervical kyphosis


Explanation

Cervical laminectomy is an accepted treatment for multilevel cervical spondylotic myelopathy. When the compression is posterior, laminectomy addresses it directly; when the compression is anterior, it is addressed indirectly (the spinal cord floats posteriorly away from the anterior compression). Preexisting kyphosis is a contraindication to laminectomy because the cord is unable to float posteriorly away from the anterior compression, and the risk for increasing kyphosis is significant. Kyphosis after laminectomy is more likely to develop in younger patients who have fewer degenerative changes to stabilize the spine.

Question 2700

Topic: 6. Spine
Figures 85a through 85c are the sagittal and axial CT scans and sagittal T2 MR image of a 21-year-old man who was thrown from his motocross bike earlier in the day. He now has significant low-back pain; however, he is neurologically intact and has no trouble voiding urine. A standing plain radiograph obtained the next day is shown in Figure 85d. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Resumption of full activity as soon as tolerated
. A brace
. Anterior stabilization and fusion
. Posterior stabilization and fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A brace


Explanation

Disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex is an important determinant of the stability of a burst fracture. This patient is neurologically intact and his MR images do not reveal posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) disruption. The standing radiograph confirms that overall alignment is acceptably and relatively preserved. Nonsurgical treatment with or without a brace is acceptable in this scenario.