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Question 2621

Topic: 6. Spine

According to the Spine Patient Outcomes Research Trial (SPORT) for degenerative spondylolisthesis, which of the following statements is true regarding outcomes of surgical versus non-operative treatment?

. Non-operative treatment is superior to surgery at 4-year follow-up
. Surgery provides significantly greater improvement in pain and function compared to non-operative treatment at 4-8 years
. There is no significant difference in functional outcomes between the two groups
. Decompression alone has higher satisfaction rates than decompression with instrumented fusion
. Patients crossing over to non-operative treatment had better outcomes than those remaining in surgery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Non-operative treatment is superior to surgery at 4-year follow-up


Explanation

The SPORT trial showed that patients treated surgically for degenerative spondylolisthesis maintained significantly greater improvement in pain and physical function at 4 to 8 years of follow-up compared to those treated non-operatively.

Question 2622

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old man presents with severe lower back pain and low-grade fevers. MRI shows L4-L5 discitis and osteomyelitis without a significant epidural abscess. He is neurologically intact, and three sets of blood cultures are negative. What is the most appropriate next step?

. Empiric intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics
. CT-guided needle biopsy of the disc space
. Open surgical debridement and posterior spinal fusion
. Oral antibiotics for 6 weeks
. Observation and serial ESR/CRP measurements

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Empiric intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics


Explanation

In hemodynamically stable patients with suspected pyogenic discitis/osteomyelitis and negative blood cultures, obtaining a tissue diagnosis via CT-guided biopsy is the standard of care prior to starting empiric antibiotics.

Question 2623

Topic: 6. Spine

A 14-year-old girl is undergoing a posterior spinal fusion for adolescent idiopathic scoliosis. During deformity correction, the neuromonitoring technician reports a sudden, sustained 80% decrease in motor evoked potentials (MEPs) in the bilateral lower extremities, while somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEPs) remain at baseline. A wake-up test confirms the patient cannot move her lower extremities. Which of the following anatomic structures is most likely compromised?

. Fasciculus gracilis
. Fasciculus cuneatus
. Anterior spinothalamic tract
. Corticospinal tract
. Dorsal root ganglion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fasciculus gracilis


Explanation

Loss of MEPs with preserved SSEPs indicates an anterior cord syndrome, commonly due to hypoperfusion of the anterior spinal artery. The corticospinal tract, located in the anterior/lateral cord, carries descending motor signals and is monitored by MEPs.

Question 2624

Topic: 6. Spine

A 10-month-old infant presents with a left-sided thoracic curve measuring 35 degrees. Supine radiographs demonstrate a rib-vertebra angle difference (RVAD) of 25 degrees at the apical vertebra. Furthermore, the rib head on the concave side overlaps the apical vertebral body. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

. Observation with radiographs every 6 months
. Physical therapy and core strengthening
. Serial Mehta casting
. Immediate insertion of magnetically controlled growing rods
. Posterior spinal fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation with radiographs every 6 months


Explanation

This patient has early-onset scoliosis with high-risk features for progression (Mehta's RVAD >20 degrees and Phase II rib-vertebral overlap). Serial Mehta casting is the initial treatment of choice to harness growth and potentially cure or delay surgical intervention.

Question 2625

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 68-year-old woman presents with severe flatback deformity and sagittal imbalance following a prior lumbar fusion from L3 to S1. Her pelvic incidence (PI) is 55 degrees. Standing full-length radiographs reveal a current lumbar lordosis (LL) of 15 degrees and a sagittal vertical axis (SVA) of +12 cm. To achieve optimal sagittal balance, what should be the target postoperative lumbar lordosis?

. 15 degrees
. 30 degrees
. 45 degrees
. 65 degrees
. 80 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 15 degrees


Explanation

In adult spinal deformity, the formula PI = PT + SS is critical, and the goal for lumbar lordosis (LL) is to be within 10 degrees of the pelvic incidence (PI). For a PI of 55 degrees, the target LL should be approximately 45 to 65 degrees.

Question 2626

Topic: 6. Spine

A 22-year-old restrained driver is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Radiographs and CT of the thoracolumbar spine demonstrate a flexion-distraction injury (Chance fracture) through the L2 vertebral body and posterior elements. Which of the following associated injuries must be highly suspected?

. Aortic transection
. Hollow viscus injury
. Renal artery thrombosis
. Diaphragmatic rupture
. Splenic laceration

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aortic transection


Explanation

Chance fractures are typical seatbelt injuries caused by flexion-distraction forces. They have a high association (up to 50%) with intra-abdominal injuries, particularly hollow viscus injuries like small bowel lacerations.

Question 2627

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 15-year-old male with a history of back pain presents with bilateral lower extremity radicular pain. Radiographs reveal a Grade IV isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1. During surgical reduction and fusion, the patient is at highest risk for iatrogenic injury to which of the following nerve roots?

. L4
. L5
. S1
. S2
. S3

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4


Explanation

In high-grade L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis, the L5 nerve root is stretched over the sacral ala. Reduction maneuvers place the L5 nerve root at significant risk for stretch injury or traction neuropraxia.

Question 2628

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 60-year-old woman with a 20-year history of severe rheumatoid arthritis presents with neck pain and progressive clumsiness in her hands. Which of the following radiographic parameters is the most reliable predictor of impending neurologic compromise and paralysis?

. Atlanto-dental interval (ADI) > 3 mm
. Atlanto-dental interval (ADI) > 5 mm
. Space available for the cord (SAC) < 14 mm
. Subaxial subluxation > 2 mm
. C2-C7 sagittal vertical axis > 4 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Atlanto-dental interval (ADI) > 3 mm


Explanation

While an ADI > 9mm indicates instability, the space available for the cord (SAC), also known as the posterior atlanto-dental interval (PADI), is the most reliable predictor of neurologic recovery and paralysis. A SAC < 14mm is a critical threshold.

Question 2629

Topic: 6. Spine

A 55-year-old man undergoes a complex 10-level posterior spinal fusion for adult spinal deformity. The surgery lasts 11 hours with an estimated blood loss of 3.5 liters. On postoperative day 1, he complains of painless, profound bilateral vision loss. Pupillary reflexes are sluggish. What is the most likely etiology of this complication?

. Central retinal artery occlusion
. Ischemic optic neuropathy
. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
. Cortical blindness from embolic stroke
. Corneal abrasion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central retinal artery occlusion


Explanation

Postoperative visual loss (POVL) in spine surgery is most commonly due to ischemic optic neuropathy. Risk factors include prolonged prone positioning, large blood loss, hypotension, and the use of a Wilson frame (which places the head lower than the heart).

Question 2630

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 28-year-old man falls from a height and sustains a Type II odontoid fracture. The fracture line slopes from anterior-inferior to posterior-superior. Intact transverse ligament is noted on MRI. Which of the following makes this patient a poor candidate for an anterior odontoid screw?

. Age less than 30 years
. Intact transverse ligament
. Reverse obliquity fracture pattern
. Displacement less than 2 mm
. Absence of neurologic deficit

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Age less than 30 years


Explanation

An anterior-inferior to posterior-superior fracture line is a 'reverse obliquity' pattern. Placing an anterior lag screw in this pattern will cause the fracture to shear and displace rather than compress, making it a contraindication.

Question 2631

Topic: 6. Spine

A 45-year-old man with acute severe low back pain and bilateral sciatica presents to the emergency department. He reports difficulty urinating. Which of the following post-void residual (PVR) bladder volumes is most indicative of cauda equina syndrome?

. 30 mL
. 50 mL
. 100 mL
. 150 mL
. 250 mL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 30 mL


Explanation

Urinary retention is the most consistent finding in cauda equina syndrome. A post-void residual (PVR) volume > 100-200 mL is highly sensitive for the condition, and volumes > 200 mL strongly suggest the diagnosis.

Question 2632

Topic: 6. Spine

A 15-year-old boy presents with progressive mid-back pain and a rounded posture. Lateral radiographs of the thoracic spine demonstrate anterior wedging of T7, T8, and T9. According to Sorensen's criteria for classic Scheuermann's kyphosis, what is the minimum degree of anterior wedging required in these consecutive vertebrae?

. 3 degrees
. 5 degrees
. 7 degrees
. 10 degrees
. 15 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 3 degrees


Explanation

Sorensen's criteria for Scheuermann's kyphosis require at least 5 degrees of anterior wedging in at least three consecutive vertebrae. Associated findings include Schmorl's nodes and irregular endplates.

Question 2633

Topic: 6. Spine

A 50-year-old man presents with left arm pain radiating to his thumb and index finger. Examination demonstrates weakness in wrist extension and a diminished brachioradialis reflex. Which cervical nerve root is most likely compressed?

. C5
. C6
. C7
. C8
. T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5


Explanation

A C6 radiculopathy typically presents with sensory changes in the thumb and index finger, weakness in wrist extension and elbow flexion, and a diminished brachioradialis reflex.

Question 2634

Topic: 6. Spine

A 3-year-old boy is evaluated for congenital scoliosis. Radiographs demonstrate a unilateral unsegmented bar on the left spanning T5 to T8, with a contralateral fully segmented hemivertebra at T6. What is the natural history of this specific spinal anomaly if left untreated?

. Spontaneous resolution with growth
. Progression at 1-2 degrees per year, stabilizing at puberty
. High probability of relentless, severe progression
. Formation of a compensatory structural lumbar curve only
. Development of a stable kyphotic deformity without scoliosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spontaneous resolution with growth


Explanation

A unilateral unsegmented bar with a contralateral fully segmented hemivertebra is the most malignant form of congenital scoliosis. It carries nearly a 100% risk of relentless progression and requires early surgical fusion.

Question 2635

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 16-year-old male gymnast complains of insidious onset, mechanical lower back pain. Radiographs are normal. A T2-weighted STIR MRI of the lumbar spine reveals bilateral high signal intensity in the L5 pars interarticularis. There is no spondylolisthesis. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. In situ posterolateral fusion of L5-S1
. Direct pars repair with pedicle screws and hooks
. Epidural steroid injection
. Rigid antilordotic bracing and activity restriction
. Diagnostic nerve root block

Correct Answer & Explanation

. In situ posterolateral fusion of L5-S1


Explanation

High signal intensity on STIR MRI indicates an acute pars stress reaction or early stress fracture (spondylolysis) with bone marrow edema. The standard treatment for an acute/active pars defect is rigid bracing and cessation of the offending sport.

Question 2636

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 40-year-old woman undergoes an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) for C5-C6 spondylosis. Postoperatively, she is noted to have a new-onset unilateral vocal cord paralysis and a hoarse voice. Injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve is suspected. Which surgical approach and anatomical relationship most likely contributed to this injury?

. Left-sided approach, where the nerve loops under the aortic arch
. Left-sided approach, where the nerve is more superficial and variable
. Right-sided approach, where the nerve loops under the subclavian artery
. Right-sided approach, where the nerve traverses the carotid sheath
. Midline approach, where the nerve crosses anterior to the trachea

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Left-sided approach, where the nerve loops under the aortic arch


Explanation

The right recurrent laryngeal nerve loops under the right subclavian artery and has a more variable, oblique course in the neck compared to the left (which loops under the aortic arch and ascends vertically in the tracheoesophageal groove). This makes the right-sided approach theoretically higher risk for RLN injury.

Question 2637

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65-year-old woman with adult spinal deformity is planning for surgery. Her pelvic incidence (PI) is 60 degrees. To minimize the risk of adjacent segment disease and mechanical failure, her postoperative lumbar lordosis (LL) should be targeted closest to what value?

. 20 degrees
. 40 degrees
. 60 degrees
. 80 degrees
. 100 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 20 degrees


Explanation

In adult spinal deformity correction, the target lumbar lordosis should be within 10 degrees of the pelvic incidence (PI = LL +/- 10 degrees). Matching PI and LL restores global sagittal balance and significantly reduces the risk of adjacent segment failure.

Question 2638

Topic: 6. Spine

A 58-year-old man undergoes a C3-C6 cervical laminectomy and posterior spinal fusion for cervical spondylotic myelopathy. On postoperative day 2, he develops profound weakness in bilateral shoulder abduction and elbow flexion, with no sensory changes. What is the most likely etiology of this new deficit?

. Intraoperative spinal cord contusion
. Spinal epidural hematoma
. C5 nerve root traction due to posterior spinal cord drift
. Ischemic stroke of the anterior spinal artery
. Inadequate decompression of the C4 foramen

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intraoperative spinal cord contusion


Explanation

Postoperative C5 palsy is a known complication following cervical decompression, particularly posterior laminectomy. It is believed to result from tethering or traction on the C5 nerve root as the spinal cord drifts posteriorly following the release of anterior compression.

Question 2639

Topic: 6. Spine

A 6-year-old boy undergoes a posterior spinal fusion without anterior fusion for a severe progressing thoracic scoliosis. Over the next four years, he develops progressive rotational deformity and lordosis despite a solid posterior fusion mass. What is the primary cause of this phenomenon?

. Pseudarthrosis
. Continued anterior vertebral body growth
. Implant failure
. Neurologic deterioration
. Over-lengthening of the posterior column

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pseudarthrosis


Explanation

The crankshaft phenomenon occurs in skeletally immature patients who undergo posterior-only spinal fusion. Continued longitudinal growth of the anterior vertebral bodies against a tethered posterior fusion mass leads to progressive rotation and lordosis.

Question 2640

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

A 35-year-old woman falls from a height and sustains a T12 burst fracture. She is neurologically intact. MRI demonstrates an intact posterior ligamentous complex (PLC). According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, what is her total score and the recommended management?

. Score 2; nonoperative management
. Score 4; operative management
. Score 5; operative management
. Score 7; operative management
. Score 3; nonoperative or operative management

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Score 2; nonoperative management


Explanation

According to the TLICS system, a burst fracture morphology receives 2 points, an intact neurologic status receives 0 points, and an intact PLC receives 0 points. A total score of 2 indicates nonoperative management.