Question 2521
Topic: 6. SpineCorrect Answer & Explanation
. MRI of the spine.
Practice Set 127 of 379
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 6. Spine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. MRI of the spine.
. MR imaging of the thoracic spine
Which of the following findings is more suggestive of neurogenic rather than vascular claudication in the differential diagnosis of leg pain?
. Loss of skin hair on the feet
. MRI scans or contrast-enhanced CT scans show severe spinal stenosis.
. Anterior aspect of the lower thoracic region
. removal of the lesion and local arthrodesis if necessary.
. Vertebral artery
A skeletally mature GMFCS V child with spastic quadriplegic cerebral palsy presents with progressive scoliosis and inability to sit upright in a wheelchair. Radiographs are shown in Figures A and B, depicting a long C-shaped 75 degree curve with pelvic obliquity. Which is the most appropriate treatment option? Review Topic

. Bracing and molded wheelchair inserts
. Tethered cord
. Tuberculosis
. unilateral facetectomy.
A 42-year-old woman who has had an 18-month history of severe low back pain is referred to your office for surgical evaluation. She reports that the pain initially began with right lower extremity pain and management consisted of oral analgesics, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and muscle relaxants. She has seen a chiropractor as well as a pain management specialist and she is status-post epidural steroid injections. She has also completed exhaustive physical therapy, as she is a certified athletic trainer and runs a health fitness program at a community hospital. Currently, she denies lower extremity pain and her pain is isolated to her low back and is subjectively graded as 8/10, with 10 being the worst pain she has ever experienced. The pain is interfering with her activities of daily living and she is seeking definitive treatment. Figures 32a through 32c show current MRI scans. Based on the current available medical literature, what is the most appropriate treatment? Review Topic

. Continued nonsurgical management to include long-acting narcotic analgesics
. L4-5.
A 56-year-old male presents to your office with a primary complaint of pain in his lower back that extends down his left leg when he walks. He states he rides a stationary bike without pain, but he has severe pain walking more than two blocks. On exam he has 5/5 strength in all major muscle groups, and his sensation is intact to light touch in all dermatomes. He has no upper motor neuron signs. The pain has been going on for about a year, and he has had no improvement with physical therapy or anti-inflammatory medication. Figure A is an upright lateral radiograph of his lumbar spine. Figures B is his sagittal MRI, and Figure C is an axial image through L4/5. Assuming this patient is going to undergo surgery, what is most important in ensuring longterm symptomatic relief? Review Topic

. A solid L4/5 fusion
. Large annular defects seen intraoperatively
A 40-year-old woman with history of intravenous drug abuse and ongoing Staphylococcus aureus septicemia is referred for intractable neck pain with radiation down her arm. She also complains of progressive hand weakness. Examination reveals long tract signs in the lower extremities. Her MRI scan is shown in Figure A. Besides intravenous antibiotics, what is the most appropriate next step in treatment? Review Topic

. Percutaneous CT guided aspiration, hard cervical orthosis until bony union.
. Complete C6 level deficit in patient with spinal shock and a fracture-dislocation at C5 on C6 5 hours after injury
. hemivertebral resection and fusion.
A 32-year-old motorcycle rider is involved in a motor vehicle accident and radiographs show a burst fracture at L2 with 20 degrees of kyphosis. The neurologic examination is consistent with unilateral motor and sensory involvement of the L5, S1, S2, S3, and S4 nerve roots. He has no other injuries. CT demonstrates 20% anterior canal compromise with displaced laminar fractures at the level of injury. What is the best option for management of this patient? Review Topic
. Bed rest for 6 weeks, followed by mobilization in a thoracolumbosacral orthosis until the fracture has healed
. T8-T12