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Question 2481

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity

Figures 28a and 28b show the posteroanterior and lateral radiographs of a 38-year-old woman with adult idiopathic scoliosis. She reports symptoms of long-standing lower back pain, progressive loss of height, and the inability to stand upright at the end of the day. What radiographic finding has been found to most closely correlate with symptoms of lower back pain? Review Topic

. Thoracic scoliosis
. Thoracic hypokyphosis
. Lumbar disk degeneration
. Thoracolumbar kyphosis
. Lumbar hyperlordosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thoracolumbar kyphosis


Explanation

Adult idiopathic scoliosis and adult "de-novo" scoliosis can present with a number of symptoms that relate to associated degenerative findings such as stenosis or spondylolisthesis. In the absence of these associated conditions, increased levels of pain in patients with scoliosis has been found to most closely correlate with sagittal imbalance. Thoracolumbar and lumbar curves and thoracolumbar kyphosis have both been found to closely correlate with increased symptoms and lower health-related quality of life (HRQL) outcome scores. Thoracic scoliosis, thoracic hypokyphosis, lumbar hyperlordosis, and lumbar disk degeneration have not been found to correlate with increased symptoms.

Question 2482

Topic: 6. Spine
An awake and alert patient with neck pain arrives at the emergency department after an automobile crash. Upon examination he is weak in the left deltoid and biceps muscles (3/5 strength). CT scans performed 2 hours after admission are shown in Figures 70a and 70b. His weakness deteriorates to 1/5 strength in the upper and lower extremities. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Immediate closed reduction in the intensive care unit while the patient is awake
. Posterior spinal laminectomy and fusion with instrumentation
. Anterior cervical diskectomy, corpectomy, and plating
. High-dose methylprednisolone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate closed reduction in the intensive care unit while the patient is awake


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Facet subluxation reduction may be performed in awake patients. Posterior spinal laminectomy and fusion can result in worsening neurologic status and is not recommended in this setting. Generally, corpectomy in the setting of facet subluxation is not recommended because it does not facilitate reduction or fully alleviate spinal cord compression. High-dose steroid use is not supported by current literature. RECOMMENDED READINGS: Fehlings MG, Perrin RG. The timing of surgical intervention in the treatment of spinal cord injury: a systematic review of recent clinical evidence. Spine (Phila Pa 1976). 2006 May 15;31(11 Suppl):S28-35; discussion S36. Lee AS, MacLean JC, Newton DA. Rapid traction for reduction of cervical spine dislocations. J Bone Joint Surg Br. 1994 May;76(3):352-6.

Question 2483

Topic: 6. Spine

A 42-year-old man reports a 3-day history of worsening lower back pain. He denies any history of recent trauma or infections. He also reports difficulty urinating and fecal incontinence in the last 24 hours. Examination reveals generalized lower extremity weakness, diminished sensation in a saddle distribution, and loss of rectal tone. What is the most appropriate management at this time? Review Topic

. Immediate MRI of the lumbar spine and possible acute surgical intervention
. General reassurance, anti-inflammatory medications, and an early home exercise program
. Radiographs of the lumbar spine and pain medications with 2 days of bed rest
. Caudal epidural steroid injection with follow-up in 1 week
. Outpatient MRI of the lumbar spine with follow-up in 1 week

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate MRI of the lumbar spine and possible acute surgical intervention


Explanation

Cauda equina syndrome is a medical emergency that must be quickly diagnosed and treated to avoid long-term complications. Cauda equina syndrome typically presents with low back pain, unilateral or bilateral sciatica, saddle sensory disturbances, bladder and bowel dysfunction, and variable lower extremity motor and sensory loss. Although a number of pathologies can cause cauda equine syndrome, disk herniation is the most common cause of acute onset cauda equina syndrome. Cauda equina syndrome should be evaluated on an emergent basis and admission for work-up is appropriate. Emergent MRI to evaluate the level of spinal compression and acute decompression surgery is the most appropriate treatment in this situation. Nonsurgical management consisting of medications, bed rest, and a home exercise program are not appropriate. Whereas radiographs could be useful in a patient with traumatic onset of symptoms, MRI is the best study for evaluation of the spinal canal. Office follow-up and outpatient diagnositc testing are also inappropriate in this scenario.

Question 2484

Topic: 6. Spine

A 75-year-old woman is undergoing a T10-S1 lumbar decompression and fusion for severe degenerative scoliosis. During the deformity corrective maneuver, intraoperative neuromonitoring revealed a sustained 80% decrease in somatosensory-evoked potential (SSEP) amplitudes. Appropriate lead placement and

. Completion of the surgical procedure with continued monitoring
. Reversal of the corrective maneuver and consideration of a wake-up test
. Administration of high dose corticosteroids intraoperatively
. Removal of all instrumentation
. Discontinue monitoring

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reversal of the corrective maneuver and consideration of a wake-up test


Explanation

The most appropriate management is discontinuation of the spinal instrumentation procedure, including releasing any distractive forces. Given the ongoing changes, proceeding with the procedure and/or resetting the baseline amplitudes is inadvisable. If the SSEPS amplitudes fail to return in a timely fashion, it is strongly recommended to consider a wake-up test. The purpose of intraoperative neuromonitoring is to provide a real-time assessment of the functional integrity of the central and peripheral nervous systems during surgery to prevent iatrogenic injury. Sustained decreased SSEP amplitudes of greater than 50% and transcranial electric Motor-Evoked Potentials (tceMEP) amplitudes of greater than 75% are indicative of a possible significant intraoperative neurologic complication. Although intraoperative corticosteroids might be helpful, especially in the event of a continued SSEP change, the most important next step would be to release the distractive forces and reevaluate the patient's neurologic status.

Question 2485

Topic: 6. Spine

A 56-year-old man has a chief complaint of leg weakness and inability to walk. Examination reveals 5 out of 5 motor strength in all lower extremity muscle groups tested and normal sensation to light touch in both lower extremities. The patient is slow in getting up from a seated position and has an unsteady wide-based gait. An MRI scan of the lumbar spine is shown in Figure 1. What is the next most appropriate course of action? Review Topic

. Electromyography and nerve conduction velocity studies of bilateral lower extremities
. Multilevel lumbar laminectomy
. MRI of the thoracic and cervical spine
. MRI of the brain
. Epidural steroid injections

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Electromyography and nerve conduction velocity studies of bilateral lower extremities


Explanation

The patient is having gait problems suspicious for spinal cord compression. MRI of the thoracic and cervical spine should be performed to evaluate for spinal cord compression. Reports of leg weakness in the absence of discrete motor weakness on manual testing, and the appearance of an unsteady wide-based gait are more consistent with myelopathy as a cause of the gait difficulty rather than lumbar stenosis. Although the MRI scan of the lumbar spine shows multilevel spinal stenosis that is mild to moderate, it does not clearly explain the patient's signs and symptoms. Electromyography and nerve conduction velocity studies of the lower extremities are unlikely to add significantly to the diagnosis. Epidural steroid injections are not indicated. Lumbar decompression is unlikely to help the patient because the source of the patient's problem does not originate in the lumbar spine. MRI of the brain could be considered as a secondary imaging study if the cervical and thoracic MRI scans fail to identify an obvious cause for gait instability.(SBQ12SP.92) A 36-year-old man presents to the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle collision. He is complaining of back pain and imaging shows the findings in Figure A. On neurological examination, he does not have any deficits. MRI shows approximately 25% canal encroachment and no evidence of injury to the posterior ligamentous complex. Which of the following is the most appropriate course in management?ReviewTopicStrict bedrest for six weeks then progressive weightbearingAmbulation as tolerated with or without a TLSOSurgical decompression and anterior stabilizationSurgical decompression and posterior stabilizationSurgical decompression and combined anterior/posterior stabilizationThe patient has a L1 burst fracture with minimal retropulsion of bony fragments in the spinal canal. In the absence of neurological deficits and injury to the PLC, the mostappropriate treatment is ambulation as tolerated with or without a thoracolumbrosacral orthosis (TLSO).Thoracolumbar burst fractures are typically caused by an axial load with flexion and commonly found in this location due to increased motion at these segments. With an intact posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) and no neural compromise, TLSO is the mainstay of treatment. If there is evidence of neurological deficit and/or PLC injury, decompression and fusion are indicated. The degree of acceptable kyphosis is controversial. The choice of anterior versus posterior approach is based on ease of decompression.Vaccaro et al. introduced a new classification system for thoracolumbar injuries, TLICS, based on morphological appearance, integrity of the posterior ligamentous complex, and neurological status. They advocate use of the system for nonoperative versus operative decision making and communication between surgeons.Bailey et al. completed a randomized, nonblinded controlled trial to determine the efficacy of bracing for AO type A0-A3 thoracolumbar burst fractures. Both groups were encouraged to ambulate as tolerated and the no brace group had bending restrictions for 8 weeks. They found no difference in the Roland Morris Disability Questionnaire (RMDQ) score at 3 months after injury.Figure A is sagittal CT scan of the lumbar spine showing a burst fracture of L1 with minimal retropulsion. Illustration A is the TLICS classification with score of 4 being the branch point for nonoperative versus operative management.Incorrect Answers:

Question 2486

Topic: 6. Spine
Which of the following factors has the most effect on the pullout strength of lumbar transpedicular screw fixation?
. Depth of vertebral body penetration
. Screw diameter
. Percentage of pedicle filled by the screw
. Presence of osteopenia
. Tapping of the pedicle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presence of osteopenia


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Although all of the factors listed contribute to the pullout strength of transpedicular screw fixation, low bone density generally is felt to be the most influential. REFERENCES: Wittenberg RH, Shea M, Swartz DE, Lee KS, White AA III, Hayes WC: Importance of bone mineral density in instrumented spine fusions. Spine 1991;16:647-652. Zindrick MR, Wiltse LL, Widell EH, et al: A biomechanical study of intrapeduncular screw fixation in the lumbosacral spine. Clin Orthop 1986;203:99-112.

Question 2487

Topic: 6. Spine
A 54-year-old man undergoes uneventful anterior cervical diskectomy and interbody fusion at C4-5 for focal disk herniation and C5 radiculopathy. At the 3-week follow-up examination, the patient reports a persistent cough. Pulmonary evaluation reveals a mild but persistent aspiration. Laryngoscopy reveals partial paralysis of the left vocal cord, most likely caused by
. entrapment of the superior laryngeal nerve during ligation of the superior thyroid artery.
. stretch of the recurrent laryngeal as it enters the esophageal-tracheal groove.
. injury to the vocal cord during endotracheal intubation.
. displacement of the larynx against the endotracheal tube by retraction.
. retractor pressure on the laryngeal nerve in the esophageal groove.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. displacement of the larynx against the endotracheal tube by retraction.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The exact anatomic event responsible for vocal cord paralysis associated with anterior cervical surgery remains a question. Apfelbaum and associates, in an excellent review of 900 anterior cervical surgeries, identified 30 patients with vocal cord paralysis, 3 of which were permanent. They showed that retractors placed under the longus coli for anterior cervical exposures can compress the laryngeal-tracheal branches within the larynx against the tented endotracheal tube rather than the recurrent laryngeal nerve, which is extrinsic to the larynx. By releasing the endotracheal cuff and allowing the tube to recenter itself after placement of the retractors, they were able to decrease vocal cord injury from 6.4% to 1.7%. Jewett and associates suggested that a left-sided approach may result in a lower incidence of injury. Endotracheal intubation is the second most common cause of vocal cord injury, with an incidence of approximately 2%. REFERENCES: Apfelbaum RI, Kriskovich MD, Haller JR: On the incidence, cause, and prevention of recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis during anterior cervical spine surgery. Spine 2000;25:2906-2912. Jewett BA, Menico GA, Spengler DM, Coleman SC, Netterville JL: Vocal Cord Paralysis Following Anterior Cervical Spine Surgery. Paper presented at the annual meeting of the Cervical Spine Research Society, December 2000, Charleston SC, Paper #7.

Question 2488

Topic: 6. Spine
A 25-year-old man is unresponsive at the scene of a high-speed motor vehicle accident and remains obtunded. Initial evaluation in the emergency department reveals a left-sided femoral shaft fracture and a right-sided humeral shaft fracture. The cervical spine remains immobilized in a semi-rigid cervical collar, and the initial AP and lateral radiographs obtained in the emergency department are unremarkable. What is the most appropriate management at this time?
. Lateral radiographs with passive flexion/extension views
. Helical CT scan of the cervical-thoracic region
. Careful manual palpation of the cervical spine for subtle defects or step-offs
. MRI of the cervical spine
. Continued use of the cervical collar until the patient becomes responsive for examination

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Helical CT scan of the cervical-thoracic region


Explanation

Discussion: Clearance of the cervical spine can be difficult in the obtunded or unresponsive patient. Various trauma series have been reported to detect up to 95% of cervical fractures but only when ideal imaging views have been obtained, which is not often possible in the unresponsive or uncooperative patient. Passively performed cervical flexion-extension under live fluoroscopy has been suggested but is not without inherent risk in the potentially unstable cervical spine. CT of the cervical spine has gained acceptance for the evaluation of these patients given the excellent evaluation of the osseous anatomy and for the common availability in most emergency departments. Sanchez and associates, using a protocol to evaluate for cervical spine injuries after blunt trauma, were able to detect 99% of cervical fractures with 100% specificity.

Question 2489

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
Figure 3 shows the radiograph of an asymptomatic 10-year-old boy. Management should consist of
. physical therapy.
. restriction from contact sports.
. periodic observation, but no activity restriction.
. immobilization with a thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO).
. direct surgical repair.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. periodic observation, but no activity restriction.


Explanation

Discussion: Asymptomatic spondylolysis in a child or adolescent should be observed for the possible development of spondylolisthesis, but no other active intervention is needed. The initial treatment of choice for symptomatic spondylolysis includes rest and activity modifications, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, physical therapy, bracing, and casting. Immobilization with a TLSO or pantaloon spica cast may permit healing of an acute pars fracture. Rarely, surgical treatment may be necessary. Surgical options include posterolateral L5-S1 fusion or direct repair of the pars defect.

Question 2490

Topic: 6. Spine
Figures 26a and 26b show the radiograph and MRI scan of an 18-year-old man who fell from a trampoline. Examination reveals exquisite local tenderness at the thoracolumbar junction, but he is neurologically intact. Management should consist of
. posterior fusion with instrumentation.
. posterior instrumentation without fusion.
. anterior fusion with instrumentation.
. an orthosis.
. bed rest with gradual mobilization.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. posterior fusion with instrumentation.


Explanation

Discussion: Based on the radiographic findings of marked disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex with a relatively small anterior bony fracture, the patient has a classic Chance-type ligamentous flexion-distraction injury. The pathology is mostly in soft tissues with limited healing potential. The treatment of choice is posterior reconstruction of the tension band with a short segment fusion with instrumentation. Casting or bracing may result in a painful kyphosis with ligamentous insufficiency. The anterior bony column is mostly intact, so anterior reconstruction is not necessary.

Question 2491

Topic: 6. Spine
Figure 17 shows the radiograph of an 11-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy who has been nonambulatory for the past 2 years. Management of the spinal deformity should consist of
. wheelchair modifications and custom-molded inserts.
. posterior fusion with instrumentation.
. anterior and posterior fusion.
. observation and reexamination in 6 months.
. thoracolumbosacral orthosis bracing.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. posterior fusion with instrumentation.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The presence of any curve greater than 20 degrees in a nonambulatory patient with Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an indication for posterior fusion with instrumentation. Because of progressive cardiomyopathy and pulmonary deficiency, waiting until the curve is larger can increase the risk of pulmonary or cardiac complications during or following surgery. There is some disagreement as to whether all such fusions must extend to the pelvis. Bracing or other nonsurgical management is ineffective and is not indicated in this situation.

Question 2492

Topic: 6. Spine
Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on the pull-out strength of a lumbar pedicle screw?
. Depth of vertebral body penetration
. Percentage of pedicle filled by the screw
. Bone mineral density
. Tapping of the pedicle
. Screw diameter

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bone mineral density


Explanation

DISCUSSION: All of the factors listed contribute to some extent to the pull-out strength of lumbar pedicle screws, but bone mineral density correlates most precisely.

Question 2493

Topic: 6. Spine

A 14-year-old boy reports a 4-month history of increasing backache with difficulty walking long distances. His parents state that he walks with his knees slightly flexed and is unable to bend forward and get his hands to his knees. He denies numbness, tingling, and weakness in his legs and denies loss of bladder and bowel control. A lateral radiograph of the lumbosacral spine is shown in Figure 18. What is the best surgical management for this condition? Review Topic

. Vertebrectomy of L5
. Posterior spinal fusion with or without instrumentation from L4 to S1
. Posterior spinal fusion without instrumentation from L5 to S1
. Anterior spinal fusion from L4 to L5
. Direct repair of the spondylolysis defect

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior spinal fusion with or without instrumentation from L4 to S1


Explanation

The patient has a grade 4 spondylolisthesis. Optimal surgical management is posterior spinal fusion from L4 to the sacrum. The use of instrumentation is controversial. Vertebrectomy is typically reserved for spondylo-optosis (grade 5) cases. Spinal fusion from L5 to S1 usually is not successful for a slip that is greater than 50%. Isolated anterior spinal fusion has not been successful, and direct repair of the pars defect is only useful for spondylolysis without spondylolisthesis.

Question 2494

Topic: 6. Spine
In patients without spondylolisthesis or scoliosis undergoing laminectomy for lumbar spinal stenosis, spinal fusion is generally recommended if
. a dural tear is repaired.
. more than one level requires decompression.
. less than one half of each facet is removed bilaterally.
. the pars interarticularis is fractured.
. the patient is a smoker.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. the pars interarticularis is fractured.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: With the notable exception of fusion for degenerative spondylolisthesis and scoliosis, there is a paucity of evidence on the indications for spinal fusion in patients undergoing laminectomy for spinal stenosis. However, it is generally recommended that if the spine is destabilized (for example by removal of one complete facet joint or by an iatrogenic pars fracture), spinal fusion should be considered. Although fusion can be considered for a very long laminectomy, a two-level laminectomy does not represent, by itself, a clear indication for the addition of a spinal fusion. The repair of a dural tear and the use of nicotine by the patient play no role in the determination of whether or not to add fusion to a laminectomy procedure. REFERENCES: Spivak JM, Connolly PJ (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, pp 299-409. Fischgrund JS, Mackay M, Herkowitz HN, et al: 1997 Volvo Award winner in clinical studies. Degenerative lumbar spondylolisthesis with spinal stenosis: A prospective, randomized study comparing decompressive laminectomy and arthrodesis with and without spinal instrumentation. Spine 1997;22:2807-2812.

Question 2495

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 40-year-old man has intractable pain following 2 years of nonsurgical management for high-grade spondylolisthesis. What is the best surgical option?
. Posterolateral fusion
. Posterolateral fusion with instrumentation
. Circumferential fusion
. Transforaminal lumbar interbody fusion
. Anterior lumbar interbody fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Circumferential fusion


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Circumferential fusion is the preferred choice for patients undergoing revision surgery following failed posterolateral fusions for isthmic spondylolisthesis as well as for those patients having primary surgery for high-grade isthmic spondylolisthesis.

Question 2496

Topic: 6. Spine
  • Work-related injuries to the lower back are most often related to which of the following risk factors?
. Female gender
. History of cigarette smoking
. L5-S1 spondylolisthesis on pre-employment radiography
. Decreased strength of the lower extremities on pre-employment testing
. Decreased flexibility of the lumbar spine on pre-employment testing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Female gender


Explanation

The strongest variable for predicting subsequent low back pain is current or prior low back pain, defined at time loss for back pain during the previous 6 months or at the time of initial examination; relative risk 60%. Smoking was associated with a 40% increased risk of reporting back pain.

Question 2497

Topic: 6. Spine

A 14-year-old boy has had a 3-month history of low back pain with no known trauma. The pain is worse with activity and relieved by rest, although he does report difficulty with prolonged sitting in school. The patient was on the football team but stopped participating because of the back pain during football practice. He reports no history of radicular pain and denies any numbness, tingling, or weakness in the legs. Neurologic examination is normal. Back examination reveals slight tenderness over the lower back area but no swelling or skin defects. Strength testing is 5 over 5 in the lower extremities and the straight leg raise test is negative. Back range of motion is nearly full, but back extension is painful. The hamstrings are slightly tight. Initial radiographs, including AP, lateral and oblique views, are negative. What is the best test to determine the patient's diagnosis? Review Topic

. Flexion and extension lateral radiographs
. MRI
. Myelogram
. Diskogram
. Bone scan with SPECT

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexion and extension lateral radiographs


Explanation

A bone scan with SPECT is very sensitive and specific for spondylolysis not seen on initial radiographs. MRI can sometimes visualize spondylolysis, but it is not as sensitive nor as specific as a bone scan with SPECT. Flexion and extension viewshave no role in the evaluation of the patient who presents with classic spondylolysis-type symptoms. The most sensitive physical examination finding is pain with back extension. Oblique radiographs can be obtained, but they are not as sensitive or specific as a bone scan with SPECT. The patient does not have any signs of a disk problem; therefore, an evaluation of the disk is not helpful.(SBQ13PE.79) A 17-year-old male American football lineman presents with low back pain of insidious onset that is somewhat worse with activity. He has no neurologic complaints, night pain or fevers. His symptoms have been present for a few years but this is the first time he has sought medical attention. What physical examination finding is most likely to be found in this clinical scenario?ReviewTopicPopliteal angle of 5 degreesHeel cord tightnessIncreased femoral anteversionPain with lumbar extension in single leg stanceNumbness of the skin of the anterolateral calf and dorsum of the footThe patient demographics and clinical presentation are consistent with lumbar spondylolysis. Pain with lumbar extension is the most common physical exam finding.Office assessment of the patient with spondylolysis should note pertinent negatives that would signify other causes of back pain. The history is most commonly negative for neurologic symptoms such as weakness or numbness, although patients will occasionally have radicular pain. On exam, patients may have localized spasm or tenderness, step off (if there is spondylolisthesis), hamstring tightness. The most common finding is pain with lumbar extension.McCleary et al. review the diagnosis and treatment of spondylolysis in athletes. They identify three types of patients with spondylolysis: (1) female dancer or gymnast who is hyperlordotic, with increased motion and flexibility, (2) male weightlifter or football player undergoing a growth spurt, with decreased motion and flexiblity, especially of the spinal erectors, and (3) a novice athlete undergoing vigorous preparation for a new sport, with poor core strength and flexibility.Incorrect

Question 2498

Topic: 6. Spine
A 55-year-old woman undergoes an anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion at C5-C6 through a left-sided approach. One year later, she requires an anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion on another level. Which of the following is considered a contraindication to performing a right-sided approach for the revision procedure?
. Revision surgery caudad to C6
. Persistent left cervical radiculopathy
. History of a left-sided Horner’s syndrome
. Transient dysphagia following the initial anterior cervical procedure
. Nonfunctional left vocal cord

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nonfunctional left vocal cord


Explanation

DISCUSSION: When attempting a revision anterior cervical approach from the side opposite the original approach, it is important to evaluate the function of the vocal cords. If this evaluation reveals dysfunction of the vocal cord on the side of the original approach, then an approach on the contralateral side should not be attempted. Injury to the stellate ganglion, which causes a Horner’s syndrome, should not preclude an approach on the contralateral side. While the side of the symptomatology can influence the surgeon’s choice as to the side of an anterior approach, it does not preclude a certain approach. When approaching the lower cervical spine from the right side, the recurrent laryngeal nerve can cross the surgical field and should be preserved. Excessive intraoperative pressure on the esophagus can increase the incidence of dysphagia, but its incidence is no different with either approach. REFERENCES: Spivak JM, Connolly PJ (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, pp 387-394. Edwards CC II, Riew KD, Anderson PA, et al: Cervical myelopathy: Current diagnostic and treatment strategies. Spine J 2003;3:68-81.

Question 2499

Topic: Thoracolumbar Spine & Deformity
A 21-year-old woman sustained a minimally displaced traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2 (Hangman’s fracture) after striking the windshield with her forehead during a motor vehicle accident. Management should consist of
. skeletal tong traction for 6 weeks.
. anterior C2-3 diskectomy, grafting, and plate fixation.
. halo application for 8 weeks.
. a rigid collar for 4 to 6 weeks, followed by mobilization.
. posterior stabilization with C2 pedicle screws.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. a rigid collar for 4 to 6 weeks, followed by mobilization.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: According to the classification of Levine and Edwards, a type I Hangman’s fracture is minimally displaced without angulation and represents a stable injury. Good clinical success has been achieved with nonsurgical management consisting of use of a rigid collar until the patient reports pain relief, followed by quick mobilization. REFERENCE: Levine AM, Edwards CC: The management of traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1985;67:217-226.

Question 2500

Topic: 6. Spine

A 40-year-old man sustains a fracture-dislocation of C4-5. Examination reveals no motor or sensory function below the C5 level. All extremities are areflexic. The bulbocavernosus reflex is absent. The prognosis for this patient’s neurologic recovery can be best determined by Review Topic

. myelography with CT.
. spinal cord-evoked potentials.
. repeat physical examinations.
. MRI.
. electromyography and nerve conduction velocity studies.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. myelography with CT.


Explanation

The patient has spinal shock. Steroid administration and MRI are appropriate therapeutic and diagnostic procedures. Myelography with CT is of little value unless there is an unusual skeletal variant. Spinal cord-evoked potentials have no value. The best method to determine the patient’s neurologic recovery is repeated physical examinations over the first 48 to 72 hours.