Menu

Question 2241

Topic: 6. Spine

Steroids are thought to prevent neurologic deterioration after traumatic spinal cord injury by which of the following mechanisms? Review Topic

. Maintains calcium influx into damaged cells
. Destabilizes lysosomal membranes in the zone of injury
. Reduces TNF-alpha expression
. Increases NF-kB binding capacity
. Maintains free radical oxidation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Maintains calcium influx into damaged cells


Explanation

The proposed mechanisms by which steroids such as methylprednisolone are thought to prevent neurologic deterioration by limiting secondary insult, include: decreasing the area of ischemia in the cord, reducing TNF-alpha expression and NF-kB binding activity, decreasing free radical oxidation and thus stabilizing cell and lysosomal membranes, and checking the influx of calcium into the injured cells, thus reducing cord edema.

Question 2242

Topic: Cervical Spine
Stability at the atlanto-occipital joint is provided mainly by:
. Inherent stability secondary to the shape of the bones.
. The apical ligament and the anterior atlanto-occipital ligament.
. The transverse ligament.
. The tectorial membrane and the alar ligaments.
. The accessory ligaments.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The tectorial membrane and the alar ligaments.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The atlanto-occipital joint is inherently unstable and would easily dislocate without the supporting ligaments. The apical ligament attaches to the basion and tip of the dens but does not provide adequate stability to the joint. Werne demonstrated that dividing the tectorial membrane and the alar ligaments resulted in gross joint instability. The anterior longitudinal ligament turns into the anterior atlanto-occipital membrane. This is called a membrane rather than a ligament because it is not strong enough to support these two structures.

Question 2243

Topic: 6. Spine
An 82-year-old man is seen in consultation after being admitted for a fall from ground level. There was no loss of consciousness and the patient recalls striking his head and sustaining a hyperextension-type injury to the cervical spine. Examination reveals an 8-cm head laceration with only mild axial neck tenderness. He has generalized weakness throughout the upper extremities and maintained motor function of the lower extremities. There are no obvious sensory deficits, and the bulbocavernous reflex and deep tendon reflexes are maintained. What is the most appropriate diagnosis at this time?
. Anterior cord syndrome
. Central cord syndrome
. Posterior cord syndrome
. Brown-Séquard syndrome
. Spinal shock

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central cord syndrome


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Incomplete cord syndromes have variable neurologic findings with partial loss of sensory and/or motor function below the level of injury. Incomplete cord syndromes include the anterior cord syndrome, the Brown-Séquard syndrome, central cord syndrome, and posterior cord syndrome. Central cord syndrome is characterized with greater motor weakness in the upper extremities than in the lower extremities. The pattern of motor weakness shows greater distal involvement in the affected extremity than proximal muscle weakness. Anterior cord syndrome involves a variable loss of motor function and pain and/or temperature sensation, with preservation of proprioception. The Brown-Séquard syndrome involves a relatively greater ipsilateral loss of proprioception and motor function, with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome is a rare injury and is characterized by preservation of motor function, sense of pain, and light touch, with loss of proprioception and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion. Spinal shock is the period of time, usually 24 hours, after a spinal injury that is characterized by absent reflexes, flaccidity, and loss of sensation below the level of the injury.

Question 2244

Topic: 6. Spine
Figures 91a through 91c are CT images of a 76-year-old man who was involved in a motor vehicle collision. Which of the following scenarios would pose a contraindication to closed reduction of this injury prior to MR imaging?
. American Spinal Injury Association Impairment Scale Grade B neurologic deficit
. Nondisplaced frontal bone fracture
. Obtunded status and a blood alcohol concentration higher than 0.2%
. Presence of facet fractures

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obtunded status and a blood alcohol concentration higher than 0.2%


Explanation

DISCUSSION: This patient has bilateral jumped facet joints at C6-7. Although MR imaging is useful for revealing disk herniations, cord injuries, and bony fragments, early closed reduction to restore anatomic alignment may be attempted prior to MR imaging because reduction will decrease pressure on the cord. There have been reports of catastrophic outcomes with closed reduction in patients who are intubated when disk fragments are pushed into the spinal cord. Consequently, closed reduction should be attempted only in awake and cooperative patients for whom neurologic status monitoring is possible. MR imaging is generally performed after reduction is attempted (successful or not).

Question 2245

Topic: 6. Spine
A 45-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has C1-C2 instability with neurologic deterioration. Her posterior atlanto-dens interval is 10 mm. Which fixation technique will be the most biomechanically sound to facilitate fusion across the atlanto-axial junction?
. Gallie fusion
. Use of C1-C2 transarticular screws
. Brooks fusion
. Onlay grafting with a halo vest

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Use of C1-C2 transarticular screws


Explanation

DISCUSSION: C1-C2 transarticular screw fixation is 10-fold stiffer than wiring constructs, particularly in rotation; eliminates the need for postsurgical halo use; and is associated with reported fusion rates to a maximum of 100% for bilateral screws and 95% for unilateral fixation. All of the other fusion techniques mentioned are associated with a pseudarthrosis rate of at least 30%.

Question 2246

Topic: 6. Spine
During C1-C2 transarticular screw fixation, screw misplacement is most likely to result in injury to the
. spinal cord if the screw is angled too medial.
. occiput-C1 joint if the screw is angled too cephalad.
. occiput-C1 joint if the screw is angled too lateral.
. vertebral artery if the screw is angled too cephalad.
. vertebral artery if the screw is angled too caudally.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. vertebral artery if the screw is angled too caudally.


Explanation

With C1-C2 transarticular screw fixation, the following structures are potentially at risk: vertebral artery, spinal cord, occiput-C1 joint, and hypoglossal nerve. The vertebral artery is most vulnerable to injury with drill misdirection or anatomic variations in the vertebral foramen. The hypoglossal nerve may be injured if the drill, tap, or screw passes too far anterior to the lateral mass of C1. The occiput-C1 joint may be injured if the screw trajectory is too cephalad or cranially directed; however, this scenario is very unlikely because the exposure tends to direct the screw into a caudally inclined direction. This caudal orientation has the potential to cause vertebral artery injury, especially in patients who have a large vertebral foramen in the lateral mass of C2 because of erosions (rheumatoid arthritis) or anatomic variation.

Question 2247

Topic: 6. Spine
A 42-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. She has sustained multiple injuries, and she is intubated and pharmacologically paralyzed. Sagittal cervical CT scans through the right cervical facets, the left cervical facets, and the midline are shown. Definitive management of her cervical injury should consist of
. anterior diskectomy and fusion at C4-C5.
. immobilization in a Philadelphia collar and voluntary flexion and extension radiographs when awake.
. occipital-cervical fusion with instrumentation.
. halo immobilization for 12 weeks.
. left C6 superior facetectomy and posterior fusion at C6-C7 with instrumentation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. occipital-cervical fusion with instrumentation.


Explanation

The CT scans reveal an occipital-cervical dissociation with subluxation of the occipitocervical joints bilaterally. Definitive management should consist of an occipital-cervical fusion with instrumentation. Immobilization in a Philadelphia collar is inadequate for this highly unstable injury, and halo immobilization, while affording adequate temporary immobilization, is not appropriate definitive management for this ligamentous injury.

Question 2248

Topic: 6. Spine
A 65-year-old man with ankylosing spondylitis has neck pain after falling back over his lawnmower, striking his thoracic spine, and forcing his neck into extension. Examination reveals subtle weakness of the intrinsics and finger flexors at approximately 4+/5. Initial management consists of immobilization in a rigid collar, and placing his head in the anatomic position. Radiographs reveal a subtle extension fracture of the lower cervical spine. Approximately 6 hours after the injury, he reports increasing paresthesias in his upper and lower extremities, and examination now shows his intrinsics are 2/5, finger flexors are 3/5, and his triceps are now weak at 4/5 on manual motor testing. In addition, his lower extremities now show weakness in both dorsal and plantar flexion of the ankle in the range of 4/5. Repeat radiographs appear unchanged. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 2. Management should now consist of
. methylprednisolone and observation.
. posterior laminectomy and spinal fusion.
. anterior spinal fusion.
. halo vest immobilization.
. posterior laminectomy followed by halo vest immobilization.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. posterior laminectomy and spinal fusion.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: It is not uncommon for patients with ankylosing spondylitis to sustain extension-type fractures, most typically of the cervicothoracic junction. These fractures can appear nondisplaced or minimally displaced initially, making them difficult to diagnose. Because there is no mobility between vertebrae, fractures tend to occur more like those of a transverse fracture of a long bone. In addition, the vertebral bodies are vascular and their canals are relatively enclosed, making them vulnerable to epidural bleeding. The MRI scan reveals an epidural hematoma located posteriorly on the cord; therefore, the treatment of choice is surgical evacuation and a posterior laminectomy. Because of the intrinsic instability of such fractures at the time of the laminectomy, internal fixation and stabilization with a posterior fusion is warranted.

Question 2249

Topic: 6. Spine
At the L4-5 level, what is the location of the S2-5 nerve roots in relationship to the L5 and S1 nerve roots?
. They are lateral and dorsal to L5 and S1.
. They are lateral and ventral to L5 and S1.
. They are in the midline and dorsal to L5 and S1.
. They are in the midline and ventral to L5 and S1.
. There is no clear anatomic arrangement.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. They are in the midline and dorsal to L5 and S1.


Explanation

The nerve roots of S2-5 are positioned dorsally and in the midline relative to the L5 and S1 nerve roots. The L5 nerve root is located lateral to S1 as it prepares to exit under the L5 pedicle. The S1 nerve root is located lateral and ventral to the S2-5 nerve roots.

Question 2250

Topic: 6. Spine
A 60-year-old man is evaluated in the ICU after a rollover motor vehicle accident 3 days ago. He has multiple upper and lower extremity trauma and was found unresponsive at the accident scene. Surgery is planned for the extremity trauma once the patient is medically stable. He remains intubated and the cervical spine is immobilized in a semi-rigid collar. Examination reveals mild erythema in the posterior occipital cervical region. Initial AP and lateral radiographs of the cervical spine have not revealed any obvious fracture. What is the most appropriate treatment option at this time?
. Continued semi-rigid immobilization until the extremity surgeries are completed
. Halo skeletal fixation prior to the extremity surgery
. Definitive clearance of the cervical spine with CT and/or MRI
. Removal of the semi-rigid collar and physical examination when the patient is responsive
. Soft collar immobilization and local wound care

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Definitive clearance of the cervical spine with CT and/or MRI


Explanation

Ackland and associates demonstrated that the failure to achieve early spinal clearance in an unconscious blunt trauma patient predisposed the patient to increased morbidity secondary to the prolonged use of cervical immobilization. They demonstrated that the four significant predictors of collar-related ulcers were ICU admission, mechanical ventilation, the necessity for cervical MRI, and the time to cervical spine clearance and collar removal. The risk of pressure-related ulceration increased by 66% for every 1-day increase in Philadelphia collar time and this highlights the need for definitive C-spine clearance.

Question 2251

Topic: Cervical Spine

A 51-year-old woman with no preoperative neurologic deficit is undergoing elective anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion (ACDF) with plating and fusion for a C5-6 disk herniation with right-sided neck pain. Thirty minutes into the surgery the neurophysiologic monitoring shows a rapid drop and then loss of amplitude in the right cortical somatosensory-evoked potential waveform. All other waveforms remained normal and unchanged, including right-sided cervical (subcortical) and peripheral (Erb’s point), and those from the left-sided upper extremity and both lower extremities. What is the most likely cause of the change? Review Topic

. Electrode placement
. Stimulation failure
. Anesthetic effect
. Cord ischemia from retraction
. Cerebral ischemia from retraction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Electrode placement


Explanation

The change noted is focal and confined to the cortex, sparing the opposite side, both lower extremities, and the subcortical waveforms, making all the choices unlikely with the exception of carotid compression with focal cortical ischemia. This may be associated with poor collateral flow from the opposite hemisphere due to an incomplete circle of Willis.

Question 2252

Topic: 6. Spine

The best patient-related outcomes, following the surgical treatment of cauda equina syndrome secondary to a large L5-S1 disk herniation, are most closely related to which of the following? Review Topic

. Extent of bowel and bladder dysfunction
. Extent of the motor deficit
. Extent of the perianal saddle anesthesia
. Timing of surgery
. Location of the herniation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extent of bowel and bladder dysfunction


Explanation

The most predictable positive outcome from spinal surgery due to a cauda equina syndrome is early surgical intervention before any significant neurologic deficit develops. Meta-analysis studies demonstrate that surgical intervention more than 48 hours after the onset of cauda equina syndrome show an increased risk for poor outcomes.

Question 2253

Topic: 6. Spine
Figures 90a and 90b are MR images of a 34-year-old man who is referred to your office by his primary care physician after failing 4 months of nonsurgical treatment that included epidural steroids for severe right arm pain occurring in a C6 distribution. He also has associated paresthesias in this region. The patient is weak in elbow flexion and wrist extension. What are his likely outcomes if he is treated with a posterior foraminotomy instead of anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion (ACDF)?
. Similar incidence of postsurgical neck pain with higher risk for radiculopathy recurrence at the same level
. Higher incidence of postsurgical neck pain and radiculopathy recurrence at the same level
. Higher incidence of postsurgical neck pain and adjacent-level radiculopathy
. Lower incidence of adjacent segment degeneration and postsurgical neck pain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Higher incidence of postsurgical neck pain and radiculopathy recurrence at the same level


Explanation

DISCUSSION: This patient has a right-sided C5-C6 disk herniation causing C6 radicular symptoms in the right upper extremity. Studies have shown that both ACDF and posterior foraminotomy confer similar results in terms of pain relief and functional outcome. Patients treated with posterior foraminotomy are at higher risk for neck pain and recurrence of radiculopathy at the same level. Those who receive ACDF are at higher risk for occurrence of radiculopathy at an adjacent level. RECOMMENDED READINGS: Rao RD, Currier BL, Albert TJ, Bono CM, Marawar SV, Poelstra KA, Eck JC. Degenerative cervical spondylosis: clinical syndromes, pathogenesis, and management. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2007 Jun;89(6):1360-78. Bolesta MJ, Gill K. Acute neck pain and cervical disk herniation. In: Spivak JM, Connolly PJ, eds. Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 3. Rosemont, IL: American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons; 2006:227-234.

Question 2254

Topic: 6. Spine

A 19-year-old linebacker for a collegiate football team has had two episodes of bilateral arm tingling and weakness after tackling; the symptoms resolved after 30 minutes of rest. Three follow-up neurologic examinations have been normal. Cervical spine CT and MRI scans are shown in Figures 13a through 13c. What is the next best step in management? Review Topic

. The addition of a neck roll to the helmet and continuation of play
. Electrodiagnostic studies
. A series of epidural steroid injections, followed by a return to play
. Methylprednisolone dose pack, followed by a return to play in 1 week
. No further participation in football

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The addition of a neck roll to the helmet and continuation of play


Explanation

Cervical spinal stenosis is a contraindication to participation in collision and contact sports. Previously, the risks of permanent quadriparesis from cervical spinal stenosis were thought to be unclear and athletes with cervical spinal stenosis were often allowed to play contact sports. In 1996, Torg and associates reported that developmental narrowing of the cervical canal in a stable patient does not appear to predispose an individual to permanent catastrophic neurologic injury and therefore should not preclude an athlete from participation in contact sports. However, the current understanding is that the actual risks of permanent neurologic injury from cervical stenosis are significant. The Torg ratio was previously used for diagnosis but is more recently thought to be of low predictive value as reported by Cantu. Current methods for diagnosis of cervical spinal stenosis rely on MRI and CT. Current diagnosis is based on comparisons of measurements with normal values. A cervical canal of less than 13 mm is considered stenotic whereas a diameter of less than 10 mm is considered absolute stenosis as reported by Crowl and Kong. This patient has symptomatic stenosis and should not be cleared for contact sports. A neck roll will not prevent neurologic injury in the presence of cervical spinal stenosis. Electrodiagnostic studies are not likely to add any additional significant findings with central canal stenosis. Cervical traction is not of value in the long-term. Epidural steroid injections or a methylprednisolone dose pack are not of value in this situation.

Question 2255

Topic: 6. Spine
A 46-year-old woman who was involved in a motor vehicle accident reports a 4-month history of right-sided lower back pain and pain radiating into the right thigh. The patient underwent an extensive 3-month course of physical therapy and now is dependent on narcotic medication for pain control. Epidural injection therapy has failed to improve her symptoms. Examination is significant for weakness of hip flexion in the seated position and for decreased sensation to light touch in the medial anterior thigh region. Straight leg raise is negative, but the femoral stretch test reproduces anterior thigh pain. A CT myelogram image, at L3-L4, is shown in Figure 3. What is the most appropriate management at this time?
. Repeat epidural steroid injections
. Wide lumbar laminectomy
. Microdiskectomy from either a midline approach or far lateral approach
. Referral to pain management
. Minimally invasive posterior lumbar interbody fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Microdiskectomy from either a midline approach or far lateral approach


Explanation

The CT scan reveals a right-sided lateral disk protrusion at L3-4 that has been symptomatic for more than 4 months despite appropriate nonsurgical management. Relative surgical indications include persistent radiculopathy despite an adequate trial of nonsurgical management, recurrent episodes of sciatica, persistent motor deficit with tension signs and pain, and pseudoclaudication caused by underlying stenosis. Whereas studies have shown improvement in patients with sciatica from a lumbar disk herniation treated either nonsurgically or surgically, those undergoing surgical treatment had an overall greater improvement of symptoms.

Question 2256

Topic: 6. Spine
If the patient had an isolated spine injury without neurologic deficit, the most appropriate next step would be
. Anterior corpectomy with percutaneous pedicle screw stabilization
. Percutaneous pedicle screw stabilization
. Posterior pedicle screw stabilization with fusion
. MRI

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MRI


Explanation

The treatment of thoracolumbar burst fractures has evolved over the years. In the absence of a neurologic deficit or a posterior ligamentous complex injury, nonsurgical treatment is as effective as surgery. The degree of spinal canal compromise is not a risk factor for neurologic symptoms. Similarly, although kyphosis may be a marker of more significant injury, the degree of kyphosis does not correlate with chronic pain. In the setting of a burst fracture, MRI can be used to evaluate the integrity of the posterior ligamentous complex. Polytrauma may be considered a relative indication for surgical intervention in the setting of a stable burst fracture.

Question 2257

Topic: 6. Spine
What is the prognosis for ambulation, from best to worst, for patients with an incomplete spinal cord injury?
. Central cord syndrome, anterior cord syndrome, Brown-Sequard syndrome
. Central cord syndrome, Brown-Sequard syndrome, anterior cord syndrome
. Brown-Sequard syndrome, anterior cord syndrome, central cord syndrome
. Brown-Sequard syndrome, central cord syndrome, anterior cord syndrome
. Anterior cord syndrome, central cord syndrome, Brown-Sequard syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Brown-Sequard syndrome, central cord syndrome, anterior cord syndrome


Explanation

Of the incomplete spinal cord injuries, Brown-Sequard syndrome has the best prognosis for ambulation. Central cord syndrome has a variable recovery. Anterior cord syndrome has the worst prognosis, with motor recovery rare below the level of the injury.

Question 2258

Topic: 6. Spine

An 8-year-old girl has asymmetry on a forward bend test of the spine. She is asymptomatic and has a normal clinical neurologic examination. Radiographs are shown in Figures 22a and 22b. What should be the next step in her work-up? Review Topic

. MRI of the cervical thoracic lumbar spine
. Supine side bending radiographs of the spine
. Return to the clinic in 12 months with repeat radiographs
. Anterior and posterior spinal fusion with instrumentation
. Echocardiogram and renal ultrasound

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MRI of the cervical thoracic lumbar spine


Explanation

There are several reasons to obtain an MRI of the entire spinal cord of this patient to evaluate for abnormalities. These include her young age and the presence of a left-sided curve. For juvenile scoliosis patients with more than a 20-degree Cobb angle, there is an approximately 20% prevalence of a neurologic abnormality. Therefore, recommendations for work-up include an MRI scan of the entire spine.

Question 2259

Topic: 6. Spine
According to the Third National Acute Spinal Cord Injury Study (NASCIS 3), what is the recommended protocol for a patient who sustained a spinal cord injury 7 hours ago?
. Methylprednisolone 30 mg/kg initial bolus, followed by 5.4 mg/kg/h for 23 hours
. Methylprednisolone 30 mg/kg initial bolus, followed by 5.4 mg/kg/h for 48 hours
. Dexamethasone 10 mg bolus, followed by 6 mg every 6 hours for 24 hours
. Dexamethasone 10 mg bolus, followed by 6 mg every 6 hours for 48 hours
. No treatment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Methylprednisolone 30 mg/kg initial bolus, followed by 5.4 mg/kg/h for 48 hours


Explanation

DISCUSSION: NASCIS 2 established the recommended doses of methylprednisolone for spinal cord injury. This included an initial bolus of 30 mg/kg over 1 hour, followed by an infusion of 5.4 mg/kg/h for an additional 23 hours. If the injury was more than 8 hours old, the methylprednisolone was not recommended. NASCIS 3 changed the dosing schedule based on the time from injury. If the time from injury to treatment was less than 3 hours, the standard protocol was followed (30 mg/kg bolus followed by 5.4 mg/kg/h for 23 hours). If the time from injury to treatment was between 3 and 8 hours, the infusion was continued at 5.4 mg/kg for an additional 23 hours (48 hours total). In this situation with a time of injury 7 hours ago, treatment should consist of a bolus and further steroid therapy for 48 hours.

Question 2260

Topic: 6. Spine
Figure 35 shows the radiograph of a 44-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis who reports neck pain. Below what threshold number is surgical stabilization warranted for the interval shown by the arrow?
. 8 mm
. 10 mm
. 12 mm
. 14 mm
. 16 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 14 mm


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The posterior atlanto-dens interval represents the space available for the spinal cord and a distance of less than 14 mm is predictive of neurologic progression, thus warranting consideration for fusion, even in the absence of symptoms.