Menu

Question 2061

Topic: 6. Spine
While performing long fusion with osteotomies for a patient with adult scoliosis and sagittal plane deformity, the neurophysiologist reports a change in motor-evoked potentials in the lower extremities. What is the most appropriate next step?
. Check blood pressure, anesthesia depth, and technical factors
. Continue with the surgery and reassess in 5 minutes
. Administer intravenous methylprednisolone
. Perform an immediate wake-up test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Check blood pressure, anesthesia depth, and technical factors


Explanation

The use of intraoperative neuromonitoring is expanding. Changes in monitoring are concerning for the possibility of a neurologic injury; however, several other factors can alter signals, including hypotension, changes in anesthesia depth and medications, the use of paralytic agents, and technical issues such as leads falling out or becoming disconnected. If a change in neuromonitoring signals is noted, these factors should be checked first to rule out false-positive findings. If this does not correct the problem, the wound should be explored to ensure there is no compression on the neural elements.

Question 2062

Topic: 6. Spine

A 40-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a history of new-onset right lower extremity weakness resulting in frequent falls. She reports that a few weeks prior to the onset of the lower extremity symptoms, she experienced an episode of acute back pain, which has since resolved. Examination reveals 1-2/5 strength in the right hip flexors, abductors, and quadriceps. There is 0-1/5 strength

. Multilevel anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion
. Cervical laminectomy
. Lumbar laminectomy
. Lumbar laminectomy and fusion
. Thoracic MRI

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Multilevel anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion


Explanation

Symptoms of thoracic disk herniation may present in one of three distinct patterns: axial pain, radicular pain, or myelopathy. This patient demonstrates obvious upper motor neuron signs, including lower extremity hyperflexia, clonus, and a positive Babinski sign; therefore, the next most appropriate step is a MRI scan of the thoracic spine. Thoracic disk herniations presenting with axial pain usually involve the mid to lower thoracic region. The pain is usually worsened with activity and improved with rest. Radicular pain syndromes are usually described as starting in the back and radiating anteriorly in a band-like pattern to the anterior chest wall. The pain and paresthesias generally follow a dermatomal distribution. The MRI scan of this patient's cervical spine demonstrates spondylotic changes; however, she denied neck or upper extremity symptoms and more importantly, has a normal neurologic examination. There are degenerative changes involving the lumbar spine, but these cannot explain the upper motor neuron findings.(SBQ12SP.39) Which of the following is associated with increased risk of surgical site infection following lumbar spinal decompression?Review TopicUse of intra-wound vancomycin powderHair removal by clipping at the time of surgeryUse of morphine nerve paste applied to the dura after spinal decompressionSkin preparation with an alcohol-based prep solution rather than povidone iodineFailure to use chlorhexidine gluconate wash the night prior to surgeryThe use of morphine nerve paste applied to the dura after decompressive spine surgery has been used in an effort to mitigate postoperative pain but has been associated with epidemic levels of surgical site infection.Surgical site infection risk is modulated by a myriad of factors, both host factors and perioperative factors. Perioperative strategies to reduce infection that have been shown to be effective include: 1) hair removal by clipping (not shaving) at the time of surgery, 2) use of an alcohol based skin preparation agent, 3) use of perioperative prophylactic antibiotics, 4) limiting operating room traffic from OR personnel.Kramer et al. did a retrospective analysis of 148 patients who underwent laminectomy in order to identify risk factors for infection in the context of a sudden increase in infections. Regression analysis showed that use of morphine paste resulted in an 18-fold increase in the risk of surgical site infection. 17 of 148 had developed infection during the epidemic period, compared to 15/995. Cultures were positive in 10 of 16 cases; 7 of these involved skin flora. Histological exam showed foreign body reaction.Devin et al. did a multi-center analysis of patients undergoing spine surgery at seven spine centers to determine whether there was a difference in infection risk based on whether or not intra-wound vancomycin was used. They analyzed 2056 patients, of whom 47% had vancomycin used in their wounds. The risk of surgical site infection was higher in those patients that did not have vancomycin (relative risk 2.5).Incorrect answers:

Question 2063

Topic: 6. Spine
Figure 53 shows a thoracolumbar specimen as viewed from posterior to anterior following removal of all posterior elements. Which of the following structures does the red string pass under?
. Diskovertebral ligament
. Posterior longitudinal ligament
. Cauda equina
. Batsonโ€™s plexus
. Ligamentum flavum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ligamentum flavum


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The string passes under the ligamentum flavum as it runs from the posterior aspect of the vertebra above to the inferior aspect of the vertebra below in the sagittal midline. This is an important structure in diskectomy and in posterior approaches to the thoracolumbar spine and neural elements. It is rarely visualized in its entirety because typical exposures provide only a limited view. REFERENCE: Frymoyer JW (ed): The Adult Spine: Principles and Practice. New York, NY, Raven Press, 1991, vol 2, p 1465.

Question 2064

Topic: 6. Spine
Which clinical finding most strongly suggests that nonsurgical care should be discontinued and surgical intervention is necessary?
. Progressive weakness
. C-reactive protein (CRP) level of 75
. Increased low-back pain
. White blood cell (WBC) count of 11

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Progressive weakness


Explanation

Epidural abscesses are potentially devastating. Nonsurgical care may be chosen for select patients. A baseline failure rate of 8.3% increases based on patient risk factors, which include a history of IV drug abuse, diabetes, age older than 65, CRP level higher than 115, WBC level higher than 12.5, and Staphylococcus aureus as the causative organism. Immunosuppression and abscess size are not significant risk factors for failure of nonsurgical care. Nonsurgical care may be regarded as "failed" if there is worsening of a patient's neurologic status. When nonsurgical care fails, delayed surgery is less successful at restoring motor function (vs early surgery).

Question 2065

Topic: 6. Spine
A 10-year-old girl who is Risser stage 0 has back deformity associated with neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1). She has no back pain. Examination shows multiple cafe-au-lait nevi with normal lower extremity neurologic function and reflexes. Standing radiographs of the spine show a short 50-degree right thoracic scoliosis with a kyphotic deformity of 55 degrees (apex T8). A 10-degree progression in scoliosis has occurred during the past 1 year. There is no cervical deformity. MRI shows mild dural ectasia, primarily in the upper lumbar region. Management should consist of:
. observation with repeat radiographs in 6 months.
. a thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO).
. in situ posterior spinal fusion without instrumentation, followed by full-time TLSO bracing.
. anterior spinal convex hemiepiphysiodesis.
. combined anterior and posterior spinal arthrodesis with instrumentation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. combined anterior and posterior spinal arthrodesis with instrumentation.


Explanation

Scoliotic deformities in patients with NF1 are often dysplastic with short, angular curves. Posterior arthrodesis is made more difficult by the presence of kyphosis and of weak posterior elements caused by dural ectasia. Combined anterior and posterior spinal arthrodesis is generally preferred for progressive dysplastic curves to maximize deformity correction and to decrease the risk of pseudarthrosis. Anterior fusion may also prevent crankshaft phenomenon in young children. Brace treatment is not effective for large, rigid, or dysplastic curves.

Question 2066

Topic: 6. Spine
A previously healthy 30-year-old woman has neck pain and bilateral hand and lower extremity tingling with weakness after falling down stairs. She is alert and oriented. Examination reveals incomplete quadriplegia at the C6 level that remains unchanged throughout her evaluation and initial treatment. Radiographs show a bilateral facet dislocation of C6 on C7 without fracture. Attempts at reduction with halo cervical traction up to her body weight are unsuccessful. What is the next most appropriate step?
. Posterior open reduction and fusion with fixation
. Anterior open reduction and fusion with fixation
. Technetium Tc 99m bone scan
. Closed manipulation
. MRI

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MRI


Explanation

A facet dislocation that cannot be reduced in an alert, awake patient with some preservation of cord function requires MRI to evaluate the disk prior to a reduction under anesthesia. The presence or absence of a disk herniation must be assessed, as this factor may influence the method of reduction.

Question 2067

Topic: 6. Spine
A 20-year-old college athlete is seen for follow-up after sustaining an injury at football practice 2 days ago. He reports that he tackled a player and felt neck pain and numbness in both arms. The numbness resolved within seconds, but his neck remains painful and stiff. He denies any history of neck pain or injury. Examination reveals limited neck motion. The neurologic examination and radiographs are normal. MRI scans of the cervical spine are shown in Figure 34. During counseling, the patient, his family, and his coach should be informed that he has an acute cervical disk herniation and cannot play:
. until his symptoms resolve and the MRI findings return to normal.
. until his symptoms resolve and his physical examination findings return to normal.
. until he undergoes surgical decompression.
. until he undergoes surgical decompression and fusion.
. again because it is considered a career-ending injury.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. until his symptoms resolve and his physical examination findings return to normal.


Explanation

A player who has an acute cervical disk herniation should not be allowed to return to play until the acute phase is over. Certain players with large herniations may require surgery before returning to play to eliminate the risk of disk-related stenosis and cord compression.

Question 2068

Topic: 6. Spine
A teenager had pain in the left buttock while running the hurdles. He was treated with 4 weeks of rest and crutch walking, and then started physical therapy for stretching and muscle strengthening. Nine months later he now reports pain with sitting and has not been able to resume running or sports activity. Figure 96 shows a radiograph of the pelvis. Treatment should consist of which of the following?
. Continued physical therapy
. Spica casting for 6 weeks
. Biopsy of the lesion
. Steroid injection into the area of discomfort
. Excision of the fragment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excision of the fragment


Explanation

The patient has an established nonunion of the ischial tuberosity. Avulsion fractures of the pelvis are generally treated with rest and symptomatic treatment. Avulsion fractures of the ischial tuberosity are the most prone to nonunion. Most patients have few symptoms but some have trouble sitting and returning to sports. Excision of the avulsed fragment or open reduction and internal fixation are indicated for painful nonunions of the ischial tuberosity.

Question 2069

Topic: 6. Spine

A 69-year-old male presents with acute on chronic neck pain. He denies trauma, fevers, or chills. He has noticed some clumsiness in his hands recently and change in his handwriting. He has had progressive deterioration of his gait. Physical exam shows a positive grip and release test, a positive Hofmann sign, and 3+ patellar reflexes. MRI image is shown in Figure A. The procedure shown in Figure B is performed. Which of the following statements is true regarding this treatment option? Review Topic

. This procedure is contra-indicated in patients with an ossified posterior longtudinal ligament.
. Significant loss of motion can be expected due to fusion of the facet joints
. The spinal cord is decompressed by increasing the medial to lateral dimension of the spinal canal
. The spinal cord is decompressed by increasing the anterior to posterior dimension of the spinal canal
. A unilateral approach allows less blood loss than a laminectomy and instrumented fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The spinal cord is decompressed by increasing the anterior to posterior dimension of the spinal canal


Explanation

Figure B shows a multilevel laminoplasty, which can be used in the treatment of cervical myelopathy. The spinal cord is decompressed by increasing the anterior to posterior dimension of the spinal canal.The treatment of cervical myelopathy is dictated by the number of stenotic levels, sagittal alignment of the spine, and more recently attempt to retain motion. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) is used for one or two level disease with pathology localized to anterior spine. Posterior decompression and fusion is typically used for disease at more than two levels and is contraindicated with kyphosis greater than 13 degrees. Lamninoplasty and cervical disc arthroplasty are thought to be motion-preserving alternatives, although there can be unintended loss of motion with both techniques. The open door laminoplasty technique involves the use of a suture anchor or small plate to maintain the opening on one side while the french door technique involves hinges bilaterally and opening in the midline.Emery reviewed the diagnosis and management cervical myelopathy. Surgical management is advocated for patients with functional impairment. Depending on location and extent of pathology, anterior procedures may require corpectomy and use of strut grafting.Gerard et al. reviewed techniques of surgical management of myelopathy. They describe a minimally invasive posterior decompression using a tubular retractor system. Patients are carefully selected and should have less than 3 levels of disease, no evidence of instability, and normal lordosis.Figure A is a T2 sagittal MRI image showing multilevel cervical stenosis. Figure B is lateral radiograph of a patient who underwent multilevel laminoplasty. Illustration A shows the open door technique.Incorrect

Question 2070

Topic: 6. Spine

Figures 11a and 11b show the T2-weighted MRI scans of the lumbar spine of a 53-year-old woman who has low back and right lower extremity pain. What structure is the arrow pointing to in Figure 11a? Review Topic

. Ligamentum flavum
. Lumbar synovial cyst
. Tarlov cyst
. Pseudomeningocele
. Herniated nucleus pulposus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lumbar synovial cyst


Explanation

The arrow is pointing to a cystic-appearing structure with high signal intensity on T2-weighted image sequencing. It appears to be contiguous with the hypertrophied right facet joint, which appears to also have high signal intensity. The mass significantly narrows the right lateral recess. The high signal intensity suggests that this is a fluid-filled mass. In addition, the facet joints are degenerative and there is a very mild degree of anterolisthesis on the sagittal image. These findings make a lumbar synovial cyst the most likely diagnosis. Most lumbar juxtafacet cysts are observed at the L4-5 level, extradurally and adjacent to the degenerative facet joint. They may contain synovial fluid and/or extruded synovium. Presentation is indistinguishable from that of a herniated disk. The etiology of spinal cysts remains unclear, but there appears to be a strong association between their formation and worsening spinal instability. They occasionally regress spontaneously and may respond to aspiration and injection of corticosteroids, though there is a high recurrence rate with nonsurgical management. Synovial cysts resistant to nonsurgical management should be treated surgically. If the patientโ€™s symptoms can be attributable to radicular findings, a microsurgical decompression that limits further destabilization should suffice. However, if there is significant low back pain attributable to spinal instability, decompression and fusion remains an appropriate option.

Question 2071

Topic: 6. Spine

A 63-year-old male, with history of myocardial infarction, presents with buttock and leg pain. He states the pain is worse when climbing stairs, and is absent when walking down a hill. He reports when walking on a flat surface the pain begins after roughly 50 meters, but if he stops walking and remains standing upright, the pain resolves after a few minutes. He denies any leg pain when sitting and driving a car. These symptoms are most consistent with: Review Topic

. Neurogenic claudication
. Vascular claudication
. Lumbar radiculopathy
. Cervical myelopathy
. Central cord syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vascular claudication


Explanation

This clinical presentation is most consistent with vascular claudication.Vascular claudication refers to the pain, aching or fatigue of the muscles of the buttocks, thigh and/or calf that occurs with exertion, and is related to a failure to meet muscular oxygen requirements, usually caused by peripheral vascular disease impeding blood flow to the peripheral muscles.Neurogenic claudication is the classic symptom caused by lumbar spinal stenosis. Neurogenic claudication classically presents with bilateral buttock pain with upright activities, but seems to improve by postural changes that flex the lumbar spine. These posture changes are thought to increase the cross sectional area of the central canal, which relieves pressure on the affected area.Issack et al. reviewed degenerative lumbar spinal stenosis. They state that patients with vascular claudication will have similar symptoms of leg cramping, whether ambulating or riding a stationary bicycle. In comparison, patients with neurogenicclaudication have diminished symptoms of claudication while positioned seated.Young et al. reviewed the use of lumbar epidural/transforaminal steroids for managing spinal disease. They report that two thirds of acute low back pain episodes resolve within 7 weeks, so the utility and practice patterns regarding the timing and number of epidural/transforaminal steroid injections is usually based on expert opinion, rather than high level research evidence.Illustration A shows an angiogram of a patients with normal (left) vs abnormal (right) arterial vasculature. Illustration B shows the typical MRI of a patient with spinal stenosis.Incorrect

Question 2072

Topic: 6. Spine
A 17-year-old high school football player is seen for follow-up after sustaining an injury 3 days ago. He reports that he tackled a player, felt numbness throughout his body, and could not move for approximately 15 seconds. A spinal cord injury protocol was initiated on the field. Evaluation in the emergency department revealed a normal neurologic examination and full painless neck motion. He states that he has no history of a similar injury. An MRI scan of the cervical spine is normal. During counseling, the patient and his family should be informed that he has sustained
. a spinal cord injury and he cannot participate in contact sports.
. no obvious injury and can return to all sports without risk of recurrence.
. no obvious injury, but he is at a high risk for breaking his neck in athletic competition.
. transient quadriplegia only, but this places him at greater risk for future spinal cord injury and he should refrain from all contact sports.
. transient quadriplegia and that there is no evidence of increased risk of permanent spinal cord injury should he return to contact sports.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. transient quadriplegia and that there is no evidence of increased risk of permanent spinal cord injury should he return to contact sports.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The long-term effect of transient quadriplegia is unknown. Based on a history of one brief episode of transient quadriplegia and normal examination and MRI findings, the risk of permanent spinal cord injury with a return to play is low. There is a risk of recurrent episodes of transient quadriplegia after the initial episode.

Question 2073

Topic: 6. Spine
In the initial evaluation of acute low back pain (duration of less than 4 weeks), plain radiographs are recommended in which of the following situations?
. Prolonged use of steroids
. Prolonged use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
. History of back pain as a child
. Family history of back pain
. Recent viral infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prolonged use of steroids


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Prolonged use of steroids is associated with compression fractures with minimal trauma. Indications for radiography with acute low back pain include possible tumor, fracture, infection, or cauda equina syndrome.

Question 2074

Topic: 6. Spine
Standard guidelines necessitate the use of intraoperative neurophysiological monitoring for patients undergoing surgery for which condition?
. Primary lumbar disk herniation
. Adolescent idiopathic scoliosis
. Cervical spondylotic myelopathy
. No conditions; there are no official guidelines

Correct Answer & Explanation

. No conditions; there are no official guidelines


Explanation

There are currently no official guidelines on the appropriate use of neuromonitoring in spine surgery. In general, use of neuromonitoring is at surgeon discretion and often is based on the surgeon's perceived risk for neurologic injury during surgery and medicolegal concerns.

Question 2075

Topic: 6. Spine

Figure 33 shows the MRI scan of a 55-year-old woman who has had a 6-week history of back and leg pain. Which of the following clinical scenarios is most consistent with the MRI scan findings at L4-L5? Review Topic

. L4 nerve root radiculopathy
. L5 nerve root radiculopathy
. Associated bowel and bladder dysfunction
. Symptoms associated with arachnoiditis
. Wide-based gait, left-sided Hoffmanโ€™s sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4 nerve root radiculopathy


Explanation

The MRI scan reveals a L4-L5 foraminal disk herniation originating from the L4-5 disk space that has migrated up into the foramen, compressing the left L4 nerve root. There is normal distribution of the roots in the cerebrospinal fluid, excluding arachnoiditis as a diagnosis, and disk herniation in this location would not result in cauda equina syndrome or myelopathy.

Question 2076

Topic: 6. Spine
A 65-year-old woman has significant neck pain after falling and striking her head. A radiograph and sagittal CT scan are shown in Figures 23a and 23b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Degenerative spondylolisthesis
. Superior facet fracture
. Inferior facet fracture
. Perched unilateral facet dislocation
. Bilateral facet dislocation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Perched unilateral facet dislocation


Explanation

The radiograph shows a displacement of C5 on C6 of approximately 25%. The CT scan shows a perched facet at C5-6. There is no evidence of a facet fracture. A bilateral facet dislocation would show a displacement of more than 50%.

Question 2077

Topic: 6. Spine

A 65 year-old female presents to your clinic with a chief complaint of difficulty walking. She states that she has had low back pain and balance difficulties for the last 2 years, but over the last few months new bilateral posterior thigh and buttock pain has prevented her from walking more than 100 feet. She states the only place she can walk comfortably is in the grocery store. On physical exam she is unable to preform a tandem gait, and she has 5/5 strength with hip flexion, knee flexion/extension, ankle dorsiflexion/plantar flexion and great toe extension. Her sensation is intact in L2-S2, and she has equal and symmetric 3+ achilles and patellar reflexes. She has 8 beats of clonus, and a down-going Babinski reflex bilaterally.

. MRI of her lumbar spine
. Six weeks of physical therapy and anti-inflammatory medication
. Determine the patients ankle brachial index
. Cervical Spine MRI
. Lumbar Epidural Injection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MRI of her lumbar spine


Explanation

The patient has signs and symptoms of both lumbar spinal stenosis and myelopathy, also known as tandem stenosis. The next most appropriate step is a cervical spine MRI.While 79% of patients with cervical myelopathy will have at least one sign on physical exam, the absence of a one or more signs such as a Babinski reflex or a Hoffman's sign does not rule out the diagnosis of myelopathy. Tandem cervical and lumbar stenosis occurs in between 5 and 25% of patients with lumbar stenosis, and because of the stepwise progressive nature of myelopathy, it is critical not to miss this diagnosis.Rhee et al. found that the sensitivity and specificity of specific physical exam findings varies in patients with myelopathy. Overall 79% of patients will have at least one physical exam sign of myelopathy, with biceps hyperreflexia (62%) and the Hoffman sign (59%) being the most sensitive. Classic upper motor neuron findings in the lower extremity such as an upward Babinski reflex (13%) and clonus (13%) are not sensitive.Lee et al. performed a cadaveric study of 440 specimens to identify the overall prevalence of stenosis in the population. They found 5.4% of the specimens had cervical stenosis and 5.9% had lumbar stenosis. A total of 0.9% had both cervical and lumbar stenosis.Bajwa et al. evaluated over 1,000 skeletal remains to determine if tandem stenosis (concomitant lumbar and cervical stenosis) is due to an increased risk of disc degeneration or a congenitally small vertebral canal, and they concluded that tandem stenosis is likely due to a congenitally small vertebral canal in both the cervical and lumbar spine.Figure A and B demonstrate an AP and lateral radiograph of the lumbar spine respectively. A degenerative L4/5 spondylolisthesis is present.Incorrect answers:

Question 2078

Topic: 6. Spine
A 62-year-old woman undergoes a posterior laminectomy and fusion from L3 to S1. Postsurgical images show a pelvic incidence (PI) that is significantly larger than the lumbar lordosis (LL). What is this patient at increased risk for?
. Proximal junctional kyphosis (PJK)
. Adjacent segment degeneration
. Intraoperative neurological injury
. Postsurgical wound infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal junctional kyphosis (PJK)


Explanation

Sagittal balance is becoming increasingly important. PI should be roughly equal to LL. A PI larger than the LL has been associated with a higher incidence of PJK. PJK also is associated with larger sagittal balance corrections. Additional risk factors include higher presurgical thoracic kyphosis, higher postsurgical lordosis, osteoporosis, fusion below L2, and older (greater than 65 years old) patient age.

Question 2079

Topic: 6. Spine
The afferent pain innervation of the L3-L4 facet joint arises from the medial branch nerve of
. L2.
. L3.
. L4.
. L2 and L3.
. L3 and L4.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L2 and L3.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Afferent pain fibers to the lumbar facet joints arise from the medial branch nerves originating from the next two cephalad levels. Therefore, innervation of the L3-L4 facet joint arises from the L2 and L3 medial branch nerves. This effect should be taken into account when considering a medial branch block or facet denervation. The medial branch nerve arises from the dorsal ramus of the exiting nerve root. REFERENCES: Nade SL, Bell E, Wyke BD: The innervation of the lumbar spinal joint and its significance. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1980;62:255-261. Kornick C, Kramarich SS, Lamer TJ, et al: Complications of lumbar facet radiofrequency denervation. Spine 2004;29:1352-1354.

Question 2080

Topic: 6. Spine
The natural history of cervical spondylotic myelopathy is best described as
. slow, steady deterioration.
. rapid deterioration.
. stable over time.
. stable for long periods with stepwise deterioration.
. significant improvement after an initial episode of severe symptoms.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. stable for long periods with stepwise deterioration.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The natural history of cervical myelopathy has been described by Lees and Turner as exacerbations of symptoms followed by often long periods of static or deteriorating function (or very rarely improvement). This stepwise pattern of decreasing function has been corroborated by Clarke and Robinson. These authors described long periods of stable neurologic function, sometimes lasting for years, in about 75% of their patients. In the majority of the patients, however, the condition deteriorated between quiescent streaks. About 20% of their patients showed a slow, steady progression of symptoms and signs without a stable period, and 5% had rapid deterioration of neurologic function. REFERENCES: Emery SF: Cervical spondylotic myelopathy: Diagnosis and treatment. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2001;9:376-388. Lees F, Turner JA: The natural history and prognosis of cervical spondylosis. Brit Med J 1963;2:1607-1610. Clarke E, Robinson PK: Cervical myelopathy: A complication of cervical spondylosis. Brain 1956;79:486-510.