5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 21-year-old female presents with recurrent lateral patellar instability. MRI demonstrates a normal trochlear groove, but her tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance is measured at 24 mm. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate?

A 14-year-old male presents with knee pain. Radiographs reveal a 1.5 cm osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion of the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle. His physes are open. MRI shows no fluid behind the lesion. He has failed 6 months of non-weight bearing management. What is the next best step?

Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 50-year old woman with lateral-sided left knee pain. She noticed the pain over the last few months and has had no new injury. She had a microfracture performed of her lateral femoral condyle 5 years ago. What is the likely cause of the finding noted on her radiograph?

Figure A is a glenoid CT 3D reconstruction of a 26-year-old accountant who has recurrent shoulder instability. His first dislocation occurred after a fall while skiing. He has now sustained his third dislocation, which was reduced in the emergency department prior to being sent to your office. What is the most appropriate definitive treatment? Review Topic

Which of the following anatomic structures are in contact with internal impingement in the throwing athlete? Review Topic

Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 21-year-old college lacrosse player who has a 2-year history of progressive left groin pain that is exacerbated by activity. Pain is preventing him from participating with his team. Examination reveals a fit man without tenderness to palpation around the hip. No clicking or popping occurs with hip range of motion. Strength of all muscles about the hip is normal, but there is some mild pain with resisted hip flexion and hip adduction. While lying supine, progressive hip flexion with internal rotation and adduction reproduces his groin pain. Further workup confirms an anterosuperior tear of the acetabular labrum and prominence of the acetabulum. What is the most likely location of a chondral injury associated with these findings?

A 40-year-old man who is a manual laborer has had 3 years of worsening medial-sided left knee pain that has inhibited his ability to work. He reports undergoing a left subtotal medial meniscectomy 10 years ago. He has been treated with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and two different corticosteroids, with the most recent injection given 1 month ago. Each injection provided him with a few weeks of pain control. His medical history is unremarkable, and he has smoked 20 cigarettes per day for the last 15 years. His BMI is 22. On examination, he has varus alignment of the involved leg and medial joint line tenderness and no lateral or patellofemoral pain. His knee range of motion is 3° shy of full extension to 130° of flexion. He has negative Lachman and posterior drawer test results. He demonstrates no lateral thrust with ambulation. The patient is offered a VPHTO. What aspect of his history will determine the most appropriate VPHTO technique?

A 36-year-old softball player sustains a shoulder dislocation making a diving catch. The shoulder is successfully reduced in the emergency department. A postreduction MRI is shown in Figure 35. What anatomic lesion is a result of the dislocation? Review Topic

In recurrent posterior shoulder instability, what is the recommended approach to the posterior capsule? Review Topic

• The primary effect of deep freezing on musculoskeletal allografts is a reduction of

Which of the following bones is most frequently involved in stress fractures in athletes? Review Topic