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Question 1781

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 56-year-old laborer sustained a subcoracoid dislocation of the shoulder as a result of falling off a scaffold 3 weeks ago. He now is unable to actively raise his arm and has constant pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Displaced labral tear
. Tear of the rotator cuff
. Fracture of the glenoid rim
. Palsy of the axillary nerve
. Palsy of the musculocutaneus nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tear of the rotator cuff


Explanation

Thirty-one patients who were unable to abduct the involved arm after reduction of a primary anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint were found to have a ruptured rotator cuff. In their series, the incidence of injury to the axillary nerve was 7.8% as compared with 100% for rupture of the rotator cuff.

Question 1782

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

An otherwise healthy 25-year-old man underwent a right anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction with a bone-patellar tendon-bone allograft. Routine preimplantation cultures of the allograft taken by the surgeon were positive for coagulase-negative Staphylococcus 5 days postoperatively. The patient has exhibited no evidence of clinical infection and his postoperative course has been uncomplicated during this time. What is the ideal management of this patient?

. Observation
. Oral antibiotics for 6 weeks
. IV antibiotics for 6 weeks
. Arthroscopic irrigation and debridement with graft retention
. Arthroscopic irrigation and debridement with graft removal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation


Explanation

The incidence of preimplantation positive cultures of musculoskeletal allografts used for anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction has varied between 4.8% and 13.3%. Interestingly, in none of the studies evaluating this issue did any of the patientsimplanted with a "contaminated" graft develop a clinical infection. The results of the current literature suggest that the treatment of low-virulence organisms is unnecessary if no evidence of clinical infection exists. Preimplantation cultures do not appear to correlate with clinical infection. Therefore, the routine culture of allograft tissue is not recommended.

Question 1783

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Which factor is a contraindication to surgical treatment of a symptomatic CAM deformity?

. Degenerative tear of the anterosuperior acetabular labrum
. Superior hip joint space of 2 mm or less on radiographs
. Ipsilateral knee instability
. Lumbar spondylolisthesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Degenerative tear of the anterosuperior acetabular labrum


Explanation

DISCUSSIONMultiple studies have confirmed that CAM or pincer anatomy is commonly present in asymptomatic hips. According to a large systematic review, CAM deformities are present in approximately one-third of asymptomatic hips in young adults, and the proportion was higher than 50% in the subgroup of athletes.Ganz and associates proposed that femoral acetabular impingement is the root cause of osteoarthritis in the majority of nontraumatic, nondysplastic hips, and functional improvement with surgical correction of the deformity has been demonstrated. Despite the link between CAM deformity and hip osteoarthritis, a corresponding link between correction of the deformity and prevention of osteoarthritis has never been proven.Results of CAM deformity correction, typically including repair of the degenerative labral tear, are much poorer when there is significant joint space loss. A typical joint space cutoff of 2 mm or less is used to recommend against hip preservation surgery.

Question 1784

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
The patient has no postsurgical complications and begins physical therapy rehabilitation. The boy and his parents stress they “want to get the therapy over with as fast as possible” to expedite his return to sports, and the surgeon and rehabilitation team consider their request. Compared to nonaccelerated rehabilitation, patients who follow an early accelerated rehabilitation protocol experience
. increased laxity.
. no differences in long-term results.
. increased risk for graft failure.
. lower Knee Injury and Osteoarthritis Outcome Scores (KOOS).

Correct Answer & Explanation

. no differences in long-term results.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Randomized clinical trials comparing an early accelerated vs nonaccelerated rehabilitation have demonstrated no significant differences in long-term results. At 2 and 3 years postsurgically, there are no differences in laxity, number of graft failures, or KOOS scores.

Question 1785

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 75-year-old female with a longstanding history of brachial plexus palsy 2 . A 63-year-old male with a 6 month history of shoulder pain and inability to abduct past 30 degrees

. A 67-year-old female with chronic shoulder pain and evidence of significant proximal migration of the humerus on x-ray
. A 70-year-old female with severe shoulder pain and radiographic evidence of glenoid erosion to the coracoid process
. A 72-year-old male who is 9 months status post right TKA for OA with debilitating shoulder pain and an MRI demonstrating an intact rotator cuff

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A 67-year-old female with chronic shoulder pain and evidence of significant proximal migration of the humerus on x-ray


Explanation

A total shoulder arthroplasty (TSA) is indicated in the 72 year old male with debilitating shoulder pain and an intact rotator cuff on MRI. The other patient scenarios are examples of contraindications for TSA.A TSA involves replacement of the humeral head with a metal head and resurfacing of the glenoid to a cemented all-polyethylene surface. In order to achieve optimal results, patients must be selected carefully. Patients with an irreparable rotator cuff tear, non-functioning deltoid, inadequate glenoid bone stock and brachial plexopathy are poor candidates for TSA.Edwards et al. conducted a multicenter randomized controlled trial to compare TSA versus hemiarthroplasty in patients with primary osteoarthritis of the shoulder. They found that TSA provided better scores for pain, mobility, and activity than hemiarthroplasty at 2 year follow-up. Boileau et al. followed 45 consecutive patients who underwent reverse TSA ( rTSA) for cuff tear arthropathy (CTA), post-traumatic arthritis, and failure of revision arthroplasty. After a mean follow-up of 40 months, they found that the reverse prosthesis improved function and was able to restore active elevation in patients with incongruent cuff-deficient shoulders. They also found thatthe results were less predictable and complication and revision rates were higher in patients undergoing revision surgery as compared to those patients undergoing rTSA for CTA.Illustrations A and B show the preoperative and postoperative x-rays of a patient with characteristic OA of the glenohumeral joint that was treated with TSA.Incorrect Answers:Figure A is a glenoid CT 3D reconstruction of a 26-year-old accountant who has recurrent shoulder instability. His first dislocation occurred after a fall while skiing. He has now sustained his third dislocation, which was reduced in the emergency department prior to being sent to your office. What is the most appropriate definitive treatment?Immobilization in external rotation for 6 weeks Arthroscopic bony Bankart repairArthroscopic Remplissage procedureGlenoid augmentation using coracoid transfer Glenoid augmentation using tricortical iliac crest graftThis patient has recurrent shoulder instability with a small bony defect of the anterior glenoid and no previous surgery. The most appropriate definitive management in this patient would be arthroscopic bony Bankart repair.Older (>20 years old), recreational athletes with minor glenoid bone loss (<20 % of the glenoid surface area) may be treated with soft tissue stabilization procedures using suture anchors. Goals of this procedure include tightening and repairing the torn ligament and labrum to the glenoid.Younger, contact sports athletes with large glenoid defect (>20%) may require bony augmentation type of procedures.Lynch et al. review the clinical presentation, assessment and treatment algorithm for surgical management of bone loss associated with anterior shoulder instability. While defects larger than 25% of glenoid width should be managed with bony augmentation, they recommend soft-tissue stabilization in smaller defects.Balg et al. analyzed 131 patients following Bankart procedure and identified following risk factors for failure: age <=20, competitive participation in contact sports, shoulder hyperlaxity, Hill-Sachs on AP radiograph, glenoid bone loss of contour on AP radiograph.Using human cadaveric shoulders with various anterior glenoid defects sizes, The MOON Shoulder Group compared radiography, MRI and CT to determine the most reliable imaging modality for predicting bone loss. Three-dimensional CT, followed by regular CT were the most reliable and reproducible imaging modalities for predicting glenoid bone loss.Figure A shows an en face sagittal 3D reconstruction of a glenoid with 10% surface area loss. Incorrect Answers:A latissimus dorsi tendon transfer is a well established procedure for treatment of massive irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears. All of the following factors have been shown to result in worse clinical outcomes after a transfer EXCEPT?Nonsynergistic action of the transferred muscle Fatty atrophy of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus Deficiency of the subscapularisAbsence of the coracoacromial ligament Deltoid weaknessA latissimus dorsi tendon transfer can be utilized in patients with a massive, irreperable rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. It has been reported to relieve pain and improve function in a carefully selected patient population. Those patients with deficiency of the deltoid or subscapularis, nonsynergistic muscle action after transfer, or fatty infiltration of the posterosuperior cuff have worse clinical outcomes. Absence of the CA ligament may allow anterosuperior escape in RC deficient shoulders but has not been shown to lead to worse outcomes after a tendon transfer.The paper by Warner, et. al demonstrated that poor tendon quality, stage 3/4 muscle fatty degeneration, and detachment of the deltoid insertion each had a statistically significant effect on the Constant score noting that salvage reconstruction of a previous cuff repair had more limited gains as compared to primary. The reference by Ianotti, et. al showed that synchronous in-phase contraction of the transferred latissimus dorsi is associated with a better clinical result while improved preoperative shoulder function and general strength also positively influence the clinical result.An active 68-year-old woman undergoes an uncomplicated rotator cuff repair with a double-row construct using biocomposite knotless anchors. At her two month follow up, she is noted to have increased shoulder pain, weakness and limited motion. Imaging reveals failure of the rotator cuff repair. What is the most likely mechanism of failure?Anchor fatigue and breakage Anchor pull out from boneSuture rupture secondary to anchor eyelet abrasion Suture pull out from the repaired tissueInfectionRotator cuff repair (RCR) failure most commonly occurs from a failure of the repaired tissue to heal with suture anchor pull out from the repaired tissue.The overall complication rate of arthroscopic RCR is roughly 10%. Failed RCR most commonly results from failure to heal (19-94%) secondary to poor rotator cuff tissue, insufficient vascularity or poor bone quality. Other causes of RCR failure include surgical complications (deltoid disruption, infection, foreign body reaction, stiffness, neurologic injury), diagnostic errors (missed lesions of the rotator interval, long head of biceps or subscapularis tear), and technical errors (excessive tension due to lack of proper tissue mobilization, anchor pull out secondary to improper anchor placement).George et al evaluated the causes of failed RCR and results of revision RCR. While results of revision RCR are inferior to primary RCR, arthroscopic repair yields > 60% good or excellent results. Risk factors for poor results following revision RCR include poor tissue quality, detachment of the deltoid origin and multiple previous surgeries.Diduch et al reviewed the design and composition of various anchors used in arthroscopic shoulder surgery. Current advancements in the field include highstrength polyethylene sutures, new biocompatible anchor materials (PEEK, biocomposite) and modified designs including knotless systems. With improved strength of the current anchors and repair constructs, the most common mode of arthroscopic RCR failure is now related to tissue failure occurring at the tissue-anchor interface.Cole et al discussed the different primary rotator cuff repair constructs, including single row, double row, transosseous and transosseous equivalent. The authors concluded that construct selection depends on tear acuity, size and tissue quality. For acute tears < 12mm in anteroposterior length, singlerow configuration likely has sufficient strength to maintain the repair and promote healing. For more chronic tears, poor tissue quality, or tears > 1215 mm in the anteroposterior dimension, the authors recommend double-row or transosseous-equivalent repair to better restore the anatomic footprint and provide optimal mechanical stability to achieve healing. Illustration A is an algorithm from George et al detailing the decision-making process when considering revision RCR for a symptomatic failed RCR.Incorrect ResponsesBiocomposite anchors exhibit high load-to-failure and result in fatigue failure less commonly than metal anchors.A 32-year-old cross-training athlete awakens with severe left neck and shoulder pain after a day of intense upper body training. Aside from a recent viral illness, he is otherwise healthy. His pain improves, but two weeks later he notes significant left shoulder weakness. Examination reveals weakness of shoulder abduction, forward elevation and external rotation with the arm at his side. Radiographs are normal. Electromyography demonstrates 2+ positive sharp waves and fibrillations. Sensory nerve conduction studies show reduced amplitudes. MRI of the brain, cervical spine and shoulder are shown in Figures A-D, respectively. Which of the following is true of his prognosis?Decompression will result in improved muscle strength and function.The patient can expect a gradual return of muscle strength without long term functional deficits. Immunomodulators may decrease the number and severity of his relapses. 4 . Arthroscopic repair will result in the best functional outcomes given the patient's high activity level.

Question 1786

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Figures 45a through 45c are the MR images of a 22-year-old woman who has had 6 months of ankle pain related to activities of daily living. She recently completed a course of cast immobilization and protected weight bearing without symptom resolution. Figures 45d and 45e are the intraoperative arthroscopy images after minimal probing. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Ankle fusion
. Arthroscopic debridement and drilling
. Retrograde drilling and bone grafting
. Malleolar osteotomy and osteochondral grafting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Malleolar osteotomy and osteochondral grafting


Explanation

Discussion: The MR images reveal a large cystic medial talar dome osteochondral lesion (OCL) in a patient who has failed nonsurgical treatment. Ankle fusion is inappropriate because the patient has an otherwise normal ankle. Arthroscopic debridement and drilling are appropriate for smaller (< 1.5 cm sq) noncystic lesions. Retrograde drilling and bone grafting is an option in the treatment of cystic OCL if the cartilage surface is intact; however, intraoperative arthroscopy images show that this patient's cartilage surface is unstable. Osteochondral allografts and autografts are effective in the treatment of large cystic talar dome OCLs but are not appropriate for the initial surgical treatment of smaller lesions like this one.

Question 1787

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A lower chance of failure when using an extensor mechanism allograft to address a chronic disruption of an extensor tendon is associated with:
. retention of the patient's patellar remnant.
. tensioning the allograft in full extension.
. use of a freeze-dried allograft.
. resurfacing the patellar surface of the allograft.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. tensioning the allograft in full extension.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Disruption of the extensor mechanism is a rare but devastating complication of knee arthroplasty. Primary repair is associated with a high rate of failure. The results associated with using an extensor mechanism allograft are still variable overall, but the literature on the subject supports tensioning of the allograft in full extension. In studies conducted by Burnett and associates and Nazarian and Booth, the patellar remnant is excised. The use of a fresh-frozen nonirradiated allograft is recommended, and patellar resurfacing of the insensate patella is unnecessary and potentially weakens the allograft.

Question 1788

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 20-year-old college football player sustains a forceful hyperextension injury to his shoulder 4 months after undergoing an anterior capsular shift. Examination 2 weeks later reveals anterior tenderness. He is unable to lift the dorsum of his hand away from his back. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Subscapularis rupture
. Type III SLAP lesion
. Disruption of capsular shift
. Isolated traumatic subluxation
. Injury to the axillary nerve after dislocation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis rupture


Explanation

Subscapularis rupture is most likely, given weakness with the lift-off test. The injury is usually caused by either forceful hyperextension or external rotation of the adducted arm. Patients will complain of anterior shoulder pain and weakness of the arm when used above and below shoulder level. SLAP lesions usually occur with a fall onto an outstretched arm in abduction and slight forward flexion. No mention was made of shoulder instability or deltoid weakness.

Question 1789

Topic: Knee Sports

Figures 23a through 23h are the radiographs and MR images of a 32-year-old man with worsening left knee pain. A 3-foot hip-to-ankle radiograph shows a 13-degree varus knee deformity. The patient sustained a major left knee injury 5 years ago and a confirmed complete anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. He managed this injury nonsurgically with a functional brace but experienced worsening pain. He was seen by an orthopaedic surgeon 18 months ago and a medial meniscus tear was diagnosed; the tear was treated with an arthroscopic partial medial meniscectomy. Since then, his knee has been giving way more often and he no longer feels safe working on a pitched roof. The patient received 6 months of formal physical therapy and was fitted for a new functional ACL brace, but he still has pain and instability symptoms. He believes he has exhausted his nonsurgical options and would like to undergo surgery. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?

. ACL reconstruction and subsequent proximal tibial osteotomy
. ACL reconstruction alone
. Distal femoral osteotomy with simultaneous ACL reconstruction
. Proximal tibial osteotomy with subsequent ACL reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ACL reconstruction and subsequent proximal tibial osteotomy


Explanation

DISCUSSIONProximal tibial osteotomy is the most appropriate intervention to correct varus malalignment and to decrease stress on the ACL. In some cases, proximal tibial osteotomy alone may address both pain and instability, but, if instability persists, particularly in the setting in which instability can be dangerous, subsequent ACL reconstruction can further stabilize the knee with less stress on the graft after correction of malalignment. Varus alignment places increased stress on the native or reconstructed ACL. ACL reconstruction should only be performed at the same time as or following proximal tibial osteotomy to correct alignment in the setting of varus malalignment. It is not appropriate to perform ACL reconstruction prior to proximal tibial osteotomy in this setting. Distal femoral osteotomy is not indicated to correct varus malalignment. Varus alignment places increased stress on the native or reconstructed ACL, and ACL reconstruction alone is not indicated for this patient.

Question 1790

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 17-year-old high school football player sustains a traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation, resulting in a small bony Bankart lesion and small Hill-Sachs lesion. The patient undergoes an arthroscopic Bankart repair with incorporation of the bone fragment and returns to play football the following year. He has a recurrent dislocation at football practice but decides to finish the football season before considering additional treatment. He sustains nine additional dislocations, with the last dislocation occurring while sleeping. The patient has eroded one-third of the inferior glenoid surface area. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
. Revision arthroscopic Bankart repair with capsular shift
. Open Bankart repair with capsular shift
. Repair of infraspinatus tendon into the Hill-Sachs defect (remplissage procedure)
. Coracoid transfer to the glenoid (Latarjet procedure)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coracoid transfer to the glenoid (Latarjet procedure)


Explanation

A failed bony Bankart repair with multiple dislocations can further erode the anteroinferior glenoid, changing the sagittal morphology of the glenoid into an “inverted pear.” Quantitative bone loss is best evaluated by CT scan with 3-D reconstructions and subtraction of the humeral head. Bone loss >30% necessitates glenoid augmentation with either a Latarjet procedure or iliac crest bone grafting. A revision arthroscopic or open Bankart repair with capsular shift or remplissage do not address bone loss. The Latarjet procedure can effectively restore stability with glenoid bone loss and after failed stabilizing procedures.

Question 1791

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 51-year-old woman with shoulder pain responds transiently to a subacromial injection and physical therapy exercise program. When her symptoms recur, an arthroscopic subacromial decompression is recommended. During the surgery, a partial-thickness articular-sided supraspinatus tear is noted. The supraspinatus footprint is exposed for 3 mm from the articular margin. The remaining intra-articular structures are normal. Inspection from the bursal surface reveals the tendon to be intact. What is the most appropriate course of management? Review Topic

. Completion of the tear from the bursal surface and rotator cuff repair
. Arthroscopic long head biceps tenotomy
. Arthroscopic glenohumeral synovectomy
. Arthroscopic tendon debridement and subacromial decompression
. Transtendinous rotator cuff repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Completion of the tear from the bursal surface and rotator cuff repair


Explanation

The patient has a partial articular supraspinatus tendon avulsion (PASTA) lesion. Outcome studies suggest that articular-sided tears of this magnitude do well with arthroscopic decompression and debridement alone. Determination of lesion thickness is important in recommending treatment, and may be done with a variety of methods. Tears that involve exposure of less than 5 mm of the rotator cuff footprint likely measure less than half of the tendon thickness. In the absence of other associated pathology, bicipital tenotomy or synovectomy would be unnecessary. Completion of the tear or transtendinous repair would be considered for lesions of greater than 50% thickness.

Question 1792

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 29-year-old woman who underwent an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction 6 months ago now reports difficulty achieving full knee extension, and physical therapy fails to provide relief. The knee is stable on ligament testing. Figure 3 shows the findings at a repeat arthroscopy. Treatment should now include
. revision of the failing ACL reconstruction.
. arthroscopic lysis of adhesions and manipulation of the knee.
. surgical removal of hypertrophic fibrous tissue.
. excision of the torn medial meniscus.
. continued aggressive physical therapy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. surgical removal of hypertrophic fibrous tissue.


Explanation

The patient has a cyclops lesion. This is a nodule of fibroproliferative tissue that originates from either drilling debris from the tibial tunnel or remnants of the ACL stump; more rarely it is the result of broken graft fibers. The treatment of choice is excision of the nodule and, if needed, additional notchplasty. Marked improvements in function and symptoms have been noted after removal of the extension block and resumption of a rehabilitation program.

Question 1793

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Medial dislocation of the long head of the biceps tendon in the shoulder is most commonly caused by a Review Topic

. tear of the subscapularis tendon.
. tear of the supraspinatus tendon.
. tear of the transverse ligament.
. type I SLAP tear.
. congenitally shallow bicipital groove.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. tear of the subscapularis tendon.


Explanation

Medial dislocation of the biceps tendon in the shoulder is commonly associated with subscapularis tendon tears. Although type II SLAP tears can result in bicipital instability, type I SLAP lesions do not. Congenitally shallow grooves and tears of the transverse ligaments usually do not lead to dislocation of the biceps tendon. Supraspinatus tendon tears are associated with long head of the biceps tendon ruptures but do not cause biceps tendon dislocations.

Question 1794

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 21-year-old college lacrosse player who has a 2-year history of progressive left groin pain that is exacerbated by activity. Pain is preventing him from participating with his team. Examination reveals a fit man without tenderness to palpation around the hip. No clicking or popping occurs with hip range of motion. Strength of all muscles about the hip is normal, but there is some mild pain with resisted hip flexion and hip adduction. While lying supine, progressive hip flexion with internal rotation and adduction reproduces his groin pain.What is the most likely cause of this patient's pain?

. Femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)
. Osteoarthritis of the sacroiliac joint
. Intra-articular loose body
. Trochanteric bursitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)


Explanation

This clinical scenario describes a patient with FAI attributable to pincer (acetabular) deformity. This form of FAI, which involves prominence of the anterosuperior acetabular lip, may be more common among women. Decreased range of motion and pain occur secondary to the abutment of the femoral head against the acetabular labrum and rim. Hip flexion, combined with adduction and internal rotation, recreates this contact and causes pain, but CAM or pincer etiology remains unknown. The differential diagnosis of hip pain in a young athlete includes femoral neck stress reaction/fracture, sacroiliac arthritis, intra-articular loose body, trochanteric bursitis, osteitis pubis, and hernia. No information presented in this scenario suggests any of these causes. Diagnosis of FAI is best performed via MR imaging, with an arthrogram increasing the sensitivity and specificity for labral pathology. Ultrasonography may be useful in the diagnosis of dysplasia or for dynamic assessment of a snapping hip, but ultrasonography is not commonly used to diagnose labral pathology. Although concomitant chondral lesions of the femoral head are uncommon, the forced leverage of the anterosuperior femoral neck upon the anterior acetabulum may result in a “contra-coup” chondral injury on the posteroinferior acetabulum. This is the most common location of chondral lesions in this scenario. Without bony resection to prevent further impingement, this patient will continue to experience symptoms. Because there is no evidence of femoral neck prominence (CAM lesion), there is no indication for osteoplasty of the femoral neck; resection of the pincer lesion is necessary. This will often require take-down of the labrum in this location. If possible, iatrogenic or traumatic labral tears should subsequently be repaired after pincer debridement because the labrum hasimportant functions for hip stability and maintenance of the suction seal of the joint.

Question 1795

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
What form of fixation is associated with the highest incidence of osseous union when using segmental allograft reconstruction following tumor resection?
. Plate and screw fixation
. Fluted intramedullary rods
. Interlocking intramedullary rods
. Cemented intramedullary rods
. Step-cut osteotomies and interlocking intramedullary rods

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Plate and screw fixation


Explanation

Plate and screw fixation of allograft is associated with the highest incidence of union but also the highest prevalence of allograft fracture. Conversely, intramedullary fixation is associated with a higher incidence of nonunion but fewer fractures. Step-cut osteotomies are not associated with a higher incidence of union.

Question 1796

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A well-healed bulk proximal tibia osteoarticular allograft is removed 10 years after implantation due to arthropathy. Histologic examination of the host allograft junction site will most likely reveal

. bridging external callus along the allograft and perpendicular callus at the junction site.
. direct osteonal penetration of the allograft with haversian remodeling.
. complete incorporation of the allograft with obliteration of the host allograft junction site.
. fibrovascular invasion with absence of callus formation.
. gap formation with resorption of the allograft surface.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. bridging external callus along the allograft and perpendicular callus at the junction site.


Explanation

Retrieval studies of well-fixed bulk allografts reveal that the junction site heals with bridging external callus and there is persistence of callus perpendicular to the junction site. External callus is annealed to the surface of the allograft. There is very little penetration of the allograft and the bone graft is not remodeled. Direct osteonal penetration of the allograft with haversian remodeling defines primary bone healing seen in fractures, which does not occur with allografts. Fibrovascular tissue is seen early in the healing phase of the cancellous portion of the allografts.

Question 1797

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 23-year-old man reports pain on the superior aspect of his right shoulder with repetitive overhead activities and when lying on his right side. Figure 29 shows an axial MRI scan. What is the most likely diagnosis based on the MRI findings? Review Topic

. Osteoarthritis of the acromioclavicular joint
. Acromioclavicular joint separation
. Os acromiale
. Partial-thickness rotator cuff tear
. Superior labral tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteoarthritis of the acromioclavicular joint


Explanation

Os acromiale represents a failure of fusion of the anterior acromial apophysis and has been reported in approximately 8% of the population. Patients with a symptomatic os acromiale often report impingement-type symptoms with pain over the superior acromion, especially with overhead activities or sleeping. When nonsurgical management is unsuccessful, surgical options include excision, open reduction and internal fixation, and arthroscopic decompression.

Question 1798

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
  • A 16-year-old girl who swims on her high school team reports pain in the shoulder after swimming. History reveals a glenohumeral dislocation at age 14 years while doing the backstroke. Examination shows a positive anterior apprehension sign. Treatment at this time should consist of
. Putti-platt repair
. Open Bankart repair
. Injection of a subacromial corticosteroid
. Arthroscopic transglenoid capsular shift
. Rehabilitation of the scapular and rotator cuff muscles

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Putti-platt repair


Explanation

p.579: “The Putti-Platt procedure is contraindicated in multidirectional instability (AMBRI); tightening the front of the shoulder will only increase the likelihood of posterior instability. In traumatic instability (TUBS) the data suggest that such a procedure, which limits external rotation is not necessary if the Bankart lesion is solidly repaired.”p. 577: “A vigorous effort to stabilize the shoulder with exercises is particularly indicated in patients with multidirectional or posterior instability and in athletes requiring a completely normal or supranormal range of motion.”p. 989: “If the [swimmer] has symptoms of subluxation, a conservative program that strengthens the external rotators is warranted. Surgery is seldom indicated.”

Question 1799

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Figures 1 through 6 reveal the radiographs and MR images of a 30-year-old man who has a 1-year history of atraumatic medial-sided left knee pain refractory to nonsurgical measures. What is the most appropriate treatment?

. Distal femoral varus osteotomy
. Autologous chondrocyte implantation (ACI)
. Fresh osteochondral allograft (OCA) transplantation
. Arthroscopic microfracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal femoral varus osteotomy


Explanation

The images illustrate a large unstable osteochondral lesion of the medial femoral condyle. Radiographs and MR images clearly show deep subchondral bone involvement. The appropriate choice of surgery is OCA transplantation, which is indicated for primary treatment of large cartilage lesions, osteochondral lesions, and salvage procedure from failed prior cartilage surgery. Correction of mechanical axis malalignment, ligamentous insufficiency, and meniscal deficiency should also be addressed. ACI alone or an arthroscopic microfracture procedure would not address the bone defect, leaving an uneven articular surface. Although an osteotomy may be a viable choice, a distal femoral varus osteotomy would increase the contact pressure in the medial compartment and worsen the situation. The histologic anatomy of articular cartilage is well described. The superficial layer or lamina splendens contains a small amount of proteoglycan with collagen fibrils arranged parallel to the articular surface. In contrast, the deep zone contains the largest-diameter collagen fibrils, oriented perpendicular to the joint surface, and the highestconcentration of proteoglycans.

Question 1800

Topic: Knee Sports

During anatomic medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction, the surgeon notes that the graft is becoming too tight with greater knee flexion. What is the most likely cause?

. Femoral attachment placed too distal
. Femoral attachment placed too proximal
. Patellar attachment placed too distal
. Patellar attachment placed too proximal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral attachment placed too distal


Explanation

If the graft becomes tighter with knee flexion, the femoral attachment is too proximal. This error is referred to as “high and tight,” meaning that a high or proximal femoral attachment produces a graft that is too tight with knee flexion. If graft tension increases with increasing knee flexion, the result is loss of knee flexion or graft failure, increased contact forces resulting in patella femoral chondrosis, and possibly medial subluxation.