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Question 1661

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
The CT and MRI scans of a patient with shoulder instability are shown. Contrasting these two imaging techniques for decision making in shoulder instability would suggest
. Both CT and MRI have equivalent cost for the patient.
. Both CT and MRI have equivalent safety for the patient.
. Associated soft-tissue damage can be more reliably shown on CT scans.
. Two-dimensional CT scan is generally accepted as a superior imaging modality for evaluating bone loss in shoulder instability than two-dimensional MRI scan.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Two-dimensional CT scan is generally accepted as a superior imaging modality for evaluating bone loss in shoulder instability than two-dimensional MRI scan.


Explanation

Two-dimensional CT scan is generally accepted as a superior imaging modality for evaluating bone loss in shoulder instability than two-dimensional MRI scan. This advantage is offset by the relatively high radiation dose. Although CT in most situations is less costly, MRI can provide more data regarding associated soft-tissue damage that can be associated with recurrent instability. It should be noted that three-dimensional MRI has recently been shown as equivalent to three-dimensional CT in its ability to identify glenoid bone loss.

Question 1662

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Sideline examination of this patient showed no cervical pain or tenderness; motor and sensory function were normal; and his pupils were equal, round, and reactive. He was alert and oriented to the score of the game, time on the clock, and current quarter of play. His iliac crest had mild tenderness but no swelling or crepitus. The player states that he has a slight headache and is no longer dizzy. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Return him to the game and observe his play closely.
. Do not return to the game and do not allow play for the remainder of the season.
. Do not return to the game and begin a graduated return-to-play protocol for future games.
. Perform a sideline noncontact exercise testing examination and return him to the game if he is asymptomatic.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Do not return to the game and begin a graduated return-to-play protocol for future games.


Explanation

Although this player limps off the field, the fact that he felt dizzy, had a headache, and did not initially recognize that he was playing in the third quarter indicates that he sustained a concussion. The player should be kept out of the game until a cognitive examination and repeat physical assessment is completed. The Consensus Statement on Concussion in Sport recommends that no athlete with concussion symptoms be returned to same-day play. This patient still has a slight headache, but even if this resolved he should not return to the game. Adolescents and high school athletes may have neurophysiological deficits that may not be evident on the sideline, or they may have a delayed onset of symptoms. A graduated return to play for future games is recommended.

Question 1663

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 45-year-old recreational tennis player underwent arthroscopic decompression and mini-open repair of a small supraspinatus tendon tear 3 weeks ago after nonsurgical management failed to provide relief. He now has pain, swelling about the wound, erythema, and purulent drainage. The patient is returned to the operating room for irrigation, debridement, and cultures. What is the most common organism causing this infection?
. Staphylococcus epidermidis
. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
. Propionibacterium acnes
. Clostridium tetani

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Propionibacterium acnes


Explanation

In a large series of mini-open rotator cuff repairs, an infection rate of at least 2% was found, with the majority of the infections caused by Propionibacterium acnes. To prevent this complication, the shoulder should be re-prepped before the mini-open incision is made to prevent bacterial contamination from the arthroscopic procedure.

Question 1664

Topic: Knee Sports
The posterior horn of the medial meniscus receives its primary blood supply from what artery?
. Middle genicular
. Medial inferior genicular
. Medial superior genicular
. Lateral superior genicular
. Inferior lateral genicular

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Middle genicular


Explanation

The middle genicular artery supplies the posterior capsule and intracapsular structures (anterior cruciate ligament, posterior cruciate ligament, posterior horns of the meniscus).

Question 1665

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
In overhead athletic activities, the kinetic chain generates what percentage of force from the leg and trunk segments of the chain?
. 20% to 30%
. 30% to 40%
. 50% to 60%
. 60% to 70%
. 80% to 90%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 50% to 60%


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The leg and trunk provide a stable base for arm motion, supply rotational momentum for force generation, and generate 50% to 55% of the total force and kinetic energy in the tennis serve. REFERENCES: Garrick JG (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Sports Medicine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2004, p 47. McClure PW, Michener LA, Sennett BJ, et al: Direct 3-dimensional measurement of scapular kinematics during dynamic movements in vivo. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2001;10:269-277. Burkhart SS, Morgan CD, Kibler WB: The disabled throwing shoulder: Spectrum of pathology. Part III: The SICK scapula, scapular dyskinesis, the kinetic chain, and rehabilitation. Arthroscopy 2003;19:641-661.

Question 1666

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old ballet dancer undergoes hip arthroscopy for increasing hip pain and popping with activity. She experiences complete resolution of signs and symptoms post-operatively. Her pre- and post-operative magnetic resonance sagittal images shown in Figure A (left, pre-operative; right, post-operative). Which of the following pre-operative physical examination findings may have been positive? Review Topic

. Pain with internal and external rotation of her hip with her hip and knee in an extended position
. Limited motion when moving the hip from flexion-abduction-external rotation to flexion-adduction-internal rotation
. Moving from hip flexion-abduction-external rotation to neutral triggers a popping sensation
. Limitation in active hip range of motion with catching, locking and grinding noted on passive motion
. Pain with a half sit-up and tenderness at the pubic ramus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pain with internal and external rotation of her hip with her hip and knee in an extended position


Explanation

This patient has internal snapping hip (coxa saltans), which is caused by the psoas tendon sliding over femoral head, iliopectineal ridge, lesser trochanter exostoses, or iliopsoas bursa.Snapping hip exists in 3 forms: (1) external snapping hip, which is caused by the iliotibial band (ITB) sliding over the greater trochanter, (2) internal snapping hip, and(3) intraarticular snapping hip, which is caused by loose bodies (traumatic, or from synovial chondromatoses) or labral tears. While painless snapping hip requires no treatment, painful snapping hip may be addressed with activity modification, physical therapy, steroid injections. Surgical release (ITB z-plasty or psoas tenotomy) is indicated if nonoperative management is unsuccessful.Ilizaliturri et al. evaluated the results of endoscopic iliopsoas tendon release at the lesser trochanter (10 patients) vs endoscopic transcapsular psoas release from the peripheral compartment (9 patients). There were improvements in WOMAC scores in both groups, and no difference between groups. They conclude that both techniques are equally effective.Marquez Arabia et al. evaluated if the psoas tendon regenerates after tenotomy in 27 patients. At 23 months, they found that tendon regeneration occurred in all patients, toa mean circumference of 84% of the original. One patient had persistent pain, but all had 5/5 hip flexion strength. They hypothesize that the bulk of iliopsoas muscle fibers attaches directly to the proximal femoral shaft without a tendon, preventing retraction and allowing regeneration to occur easily.Figure A shows pre- and post-operative arthroscopic psoas tenotomy magnetic resonance sagittal images. Illustration A shows the psoas tendon (white arrows) prior to transection. Illustration B shows the psoas tendon after transection (green arrows, proximal tendon segment; yellow arrows, distal segment). Illustration C and D are diagrams showing release at the level of the lesser trochanter and hip joint respectively.Incorrect90 degrees, but full external rotation. Answer 2: Decreased internal rotation and a positive impingement test (forcedflexion, adduction, femoroacetabular Answer 4: Theseand internalrotation) are classic findingsfindings maybe found with intra-articularfor cam-type impingement loose bodies.

Question 1667

Topic: Knee Sports
A 27-year-old professional rugby player is sprinting down the field during a game and sustains a twisting injury to his right knee with immediate onset of swelling, pain, and difficulty with ambulation. Imaging of his right knee is demonstrated in Figures A, B, and C. Which of the following structures has most likely been injured?
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Popliteus
. Lateral collateral ligament
. Medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

The rugby player has sustained an injury to his anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), as demonstrated by the Segond fracture on radiograph and bone-bruising pattern on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). The presence of a Segond fracture (avulsion fracture of the proximal lateral tibia) is pathognomonic for an ACL rupture.

Question 1668

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 29-year-old ultramarathoner, who is halfway into a 50-mile race, is sweating profusely. He suddenly collapses, is unresponsive, and has violent muscle contractions. Prior to these symptoms, he had been drinking water at every water stop (every 1 mile). What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Hypernatremia
. Hyponatremia
. Hyperkalemia
. Hypokalemia
. Hyperuremia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyponatremia


Explanation

Hyponatremia (“water intoxication”) can occur in endurance athletes such as ultramarathoners who are sweating profusely and drinking only water as fluid replacement. With hyponatremia, the serum sodium is abnormally low, resulting in brain swelling, seizures, coma, and potentially death.

Question 1669

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A collegiate rower reports the sudden onset of right chest pain while rowing. The athlete states that the pain is worse with deep inspiration and coughing. Examination reveals localized tenderness over the posterolateral corner of the eighth rib. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Intercostal muscle strain
. Rib stress fracture
. Pneumothorax
. Costochondritis
. Empyema

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rib stress fracture


Explanation

A rib stress fracture, the most common injury to the thorax in rowing athletes, generally occurs during periods of intense training with a low stroke rate and heavy loads. It is characterized by the sudden onset of sharp, localized chest pain while rowing.

Question 1670

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 20-year-old professional baseball pitcher has had a 3-year history of increased aching in his shoulder that is associated with pitching, and he is now seeking a second opinion. Nonsurgical management consisting of rest, anti-inflammatory drugs, ice, heat, and cortisone injections has failed to provide relief. A previous work-up that included radiographs and gadolinium-enhanced MRI arthrography was negative. Results of an arteriogram suggest quadrilateral space syndrome. Assuming that this is the correct diagnosis, what nerve needs to be decompressed?
. Suprascapular
. Infraspinatus branch of the suprascapular
. Long thoracic
. Axillary
. Lateral cord of the brachial plexus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary


Explanation

Quadrilateral space syndrome is a rare condition resulting from compression of the contents of the quadrilateral space. The contents of the quadrilateral space include the posterior circumflex humeral artery and the axillary nerve.

Question 1671

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
The patient requests anatomic double-bundle ACL reconstruction. Compared with transtibial single-bundle ACL reconstruction, anatomic double-bundle ACL reconstruction is more likely to
. restore improved knee kinematics.
. allow for earlier return to sports.
. result in better clinical outcomes scores.
. be associated with lower surgery cost.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. restore improved knee kinematics.


Explanation

The radiograph shows a Segond fracture, an avulsion fracture involving the lateral capsular ligament. This radiographic finding has been associated with ACL rupture in 75% to 100% of cases. Drilling the femoral tunnel through the anteromedial portal allows for independent access to the native femoral attachment. Fiber orientation is more oblique than with a transtibial technique and more closely resembles that of the native ligament. Double-bundle reconstruction attempts to duplicate native ACL anatomy. Biomechanical studies have shown that double-bundle reconstruction more closely reproduces normal knee kinematics; however, this technique does not offer a clear advantage in terms of clinical outcomes. Double-bundle reconstruction is associated with higher surgical costs because of the need for additional fixation and, in the case of allograft reconstruction, a second graft.

Question 1672

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 47-year-old, healthy, active patient presents with a sub-acute, full-thickness supraspinatus tear. His physical examination reveals significant weakness and pain with abduction. There was no glenohumeral instability. Radiographs demonstrate a type 1 acromion. An MRI scan shows a crescent shaped tear with 2-cm of tendinous retraction and no tendinous fatty changes. A subacromial corticosteroid injection 6 weeks ago provided him with 24 hours of pain relief but no improvement in strength. What would be the most appropriate treatment option? Review Topic QID:4501

. Repeat subacromial corticosteriod injection
. Biological augmentation of rotator cuff with porcine small intestine xenograft
. Rotator cuff repair
. Rotator cuff repair plus acromioplasty
. Rotator cuff repair, remplissage procedure, bicep tenodesis and distal clavicle excision

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rotator cuff repair


Explanation

This patient has an isolated supraspinatus rotator cuff tear with symptomatic weakness. The most appropriate treatment would be isolated rotator cuff repair.The primary purpose of rotator cuff repair is to restore muscle function. Secondary outcomes include reduction of pain and prevention of irreversible cuff changes, specifically muscular atrophy. Non-operative treatment (exercise, therapy and pain medications) are recommended for partial thickness tears. The indication of surgical repair includes, isolated supraspinatus weakness +/- pain that correlates with MRI imaging of a respective full thickness tear. Routine acrominoplasty is not recommended in conjunction with rotator cuff repair, especially with no previous symptoms of impingement.Pedowitz et al. developed clinical practice guidelines for the treatment of rotator cuff pathology. The strongest supporting evidence in current literature was given a grade of 'moderate' with four treatment recommendations. These were,Exercise and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs can be used to manage partial thickness tears,Routine acromioplasty is not required the time of cuff repair,Non-cross-linked, porcine small intestine submucosal xenograft patches should not be used to manage cuff tears, andSurgeons can advise patients that workers' compensation status correlates with a less favorable outcome after rotator cuff surgery.Illustration A shows the different shapes of rotator cuff tears. Incorrect Answers:

Question 1673

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Which of the following complications is more likely with an inside-out repair technique compared to an all-inside technique for a medial meniscus tear?
. Failure
. Intra-articular synovitis
. Peroneal nerve injury
. Saphenous nerve injury
. Arthrofibrosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Saphenous nerve injury


Explanation

DISCUSSION: All of the answers are possible complications of meniscal repair. There are large volumes of literature evaluating the results of meniscal repair, both for the all-inside technique, as well as the inside-out technique. Failure rates are similar. Intra-articular synovitis occurs with absorbable sutures and absorbable implants. Peroneal nerve injuries are more common with the lateral-sided repairs. Saphenous nerve injuries are more common with medial-sided tears. Because of the incision required and the technique of tying over soft tissue, the risk of a saphenous nerve injury is greater with an inside-out technique than with an all-inside technique.

Question 1674

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
What nerve is at greatest risk of harm from the portal shown in Figure 36?
. Radial
. Ulnar
. Median
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous
. Posterior antebrachial cutaneous

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The figure shows the anterolateral portal for elbow arthroscopy, and injury to the radial nerve has been reported in conjunction with this portal site. Studies have shown that closer proximity to the radial nerve is associated with more distal portal sites. The lateral and posterior antebrachial cutaneous nerves are both at less risk of injury. The ulnar and median nerves are both fairly remote to this location.

Question 1675

Topic: Knee Sports
An 18-year-old football halfback reports that he had immediate right knee pain after being tackled 1 week ago. Examination now reveals moderate tenderness over the proximal medial tibia and lateral joint and normal cruciate stability. In evaluating the integrity of the posterolateral knee structures, what is the most reliable examination finding?
. Excessive varus laxity at 30 degrees of flexion
. Reverse pivot shift
. Posterolateral drawer laxity at 90 degrees of flexion
. Asymmetric tibial external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion
. Positive external rotation/recurvatum test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Asymmetric tibial external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The most reliable test for a relatively isolated posterolateral complex (PLC) injury is the asymmetric tibial external rotation or “dial test.” It can be performed with the patient prone or supine. When greater than 10 degrees of external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion is present when compared with the opposite knee, it indicates significant damage to the posterolateral structures. Asymmetric external rotation, which is also present at 90 degrees of flexion, indicates injury to the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) as well. Varus laxity may indicate significant damage to both the PLC and PCL. Approximately 35% of the normal population may have a reverse pivot shift when examined under anesthesia; therefore, it is considered a less specific test. The external rotation/recurvatum and posterolateral drawer tests are adjunctive in assessing isolated posterolateral laxity but are not thought to be as reliable.

Question 1676

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Figures 1 and 2 are the right shoulder MRI scans of a 22-year-old right-handed professional male volleyball player with 4 months of right shoulder pain. The pain began insidiously and is exacerbated by overhead activities and hitting during games. He has maintained a daily program of shoulder stretching and strengthening exercises but has experienced a steady decline in function to the point of not being able to participate in volleyball. Examination reveals some mild atrophy at the posterior shoulder, full forward elevation, mild weakness of external rotation on the right shoulder, negative empty-can testing, positive O’Brien’s and negative apprehension. Surgical intervention would aim to resolve pathology related to which nerve?

. Lower subscapular nerve
. Suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch
. Suprascapular nerve at the suprascapular notch
. Axillary nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lower subscapular nerve


Explanation

This athlete has a symptomatic posterior-superior labral tear, spinoglenoid notch cysts, and subsequent suprascapular nerve compression, as evidenced by the atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle on sagittal T1 MRI. The cyst is located at the spinoglenoid notch and is compressing the suprascapular nerve after it has innervated the supraspinatus but before innervation of the infraspinatus; hence, the atrophy of infraspinatus on examination and imaging. Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the suprascapular notch would lead to weakness and atrophy of both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. The lower subscapular nerve innervates the teres major, as well as, with the upper subscapular nerve, thesubscapularis. The teres minor is innervated by the axillary nerve.

Question 1677

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Which of the following tissues used for anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction has the highest maximum load to failure?
. Allograft ACL
. Bone-patellar tendon-bone with a width of 10 mm
. Fascia lata with a width of 15 mm
. Central quadriceps tendon with a width of 15 mm
. Quadruple semitendinosus and gracilis tendons

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quadruple semitendinosus and gracilis tendons


Explanation

While the patellar tendon ligament is considered by many to be the tissue of choice for ACL reconstruction, more recent studies have shown that the quadruple semitendinosus and gracilis tendon graft has the greatest stiffness and offers the highest maximum load to failure.

Question 1678

Topic: Knee Sports
A 24-year-old male presents with a symptomatic 4.5 cm² full-thickness chondral defect on the medial femoral condyle. He has failed conservative management. What is the primary advantage of Autologous Chondrocyte Implantation (ACI) over microfracture for this specific patient?
. ACI is a single-stage procedure allowing faster return to sport
. ACI produces predominantly type II collagen hyaline-like cartilage, whereas microfracture produces type I collagen fibrocartilage
. ACI utilizes a synthetic scaffold that eliminates the need for cartilage harvest
. ACI provides immediate structural support and weight-bearing capability
. ACI has a lower overall cost and lower surgical morbidity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ACI produces predominantly type II collagen hyaline-like cartilage, whereas microfracture produces type I collagen fibrocartilage


Explanation

For lesions >2 cm², ACI is preferred over microfracture. Microfracture relies on marrow stimulation and results in fibrocartilage repair (predominantly Type I collagen), which is less durable under shear and compressive loads. ACI (a two-stage procedure) results in the formation of hyaline-like cartilage (predominantly Type II collagen and aggrecan), providing superior long-term durability for larger defects.

Question 1679

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old male hockey player presents with anterior groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs reveal a cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). Which of the following radiographic measurements is most characteristic of this pathology?

. Lateral center-edge angle less than 20 degrees
. Alpha angle greater than 55 degrees on a lateral view
. Tonnis angle greater than 15 degrees
. Crossover sign on the AP pelvis radiograph
. Acetabular index greater than 25 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral center-edge angle less than 20 degrees


Explanation

Cam-type FAI is caused by an aspherical femoral head-neck junction (loss of native concavity). It is most accurately quantified using the alpha angle, typically measured on a Dunn lateral or frog-leg lateral radiograph (or MRI). An alpha angle >50-55 degrees indicates cam morphology. A crossover sign indicates pincer-type FAI (acetabular retroversion). Lateral center-edge angle <20 and high Tonnis angle denote hip dysplasia.

Question 1680

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 30-year-old female has an isolated 1.2 cm² full-thickness osteochondral defect on the weight-bearing surface of the medial femoral condyle. She is undergoing Osteochondral Autograft Transfer System (OATS) procedure. From which of the following locations is the graft most appropriately harvested to minimize donor site morbidity?
. The central weight-bearing zone of the lateral femoral condyle
. The superomedial aspect of the patellar articular surface
. The superolateral margin of the lateral femoral condyle (trochlear periphery)
. The central portion of the tibial plateau
. The central aspect of the trochlear groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The superolateral margin of the lateral femoral condyle (trochlear periphery)


Explanation

In the OATS procedure (mosaicplasty), cylindrical osteochondral grafts are harvested from a non-weight-bearing or low-contact-pressure area of the knee to treat a defect in a high-weight-bearing area. The ideal and most common donor sites are the periphery of the lateral trochlear ridge (superolateral margin of the lateral condyle) or the medial superomedial trochlear margin, as these areas experience minimal contact pressures.