Question 1561
Topic: Knee SportsCorrect Answer & Explanation
. Meniscal repair
Practice Set 79 of 360
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 5. Sports Medicine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Meniscal repair
. Surgical reconstruction
A 22-year-old male soccer player reports left hip and groin pain. He states that symptoms began before a preseason tournament but have worsened steadily for the past 2 weeks. He denies any recent fever or sickness and is otherwise healthy. Examination reveals tenderness over the symphysis pubis and pain with resisted rectus abdominus testing. Radiographs are negative. What is the next step in the proper management of this patient? Review Topic
. Rest, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, rehabilitation, and gradual return to play
. Posterior horn of the medial meniscus
. Rehabilitation initially focused on closed chain quadriceps strengthening
. with her current anterosuperior escape, she is likely to have a poor surgical result.
A 17-year-old male football player is seen 1 week after developing symptoms of infectious mononucleosis in the middle of the season. Examination reveals evidence of splenomegaly. He and his parents want to know if he can play in a game the following day. What is the most appropriate recommendation? Review Topic
. It is safe to return to play right away.
. Anterior cruciate
. Retear rate
. open repair of the lateral joint capsule disruption.
repair of the rotator cuff
. closed reduction and immobilization
A 21-year-old female college athlete sustained a stress fracture of the fifth metatarsal 1 year ago which was treated successfully with surgical stabilization and she returned to normal activities. She now has a tension-sided femoral neck fracture. Along with surgical fixation of the fracture, what is the next step in management? Review Topic
. Obtain a menstrual history.
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Quality of the subscapularis
. Repetitive activities involving an open proximal femoral physis
. Corticosteroid injection
A 19-year-old running back lands directly on his anterior knee after being tackled. He has mild anterior knee pain, a trace effusion, a 2+ posterior drawer, a grade 1A Lachman, no valgus laxity, and negative dial tests at 30° and 90°. What is the best treatment strategy at this time?
. Physical therapy with a focus on quadriceps strengthening
. Bone loss
. Malposition of the femoral tunnel
What is an example of cognitive rest after concussion? Review Topic
. Playing chess