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Question 1521

Topic: Knee Sports
Figures below show the radiographs and the MRIs obtained from a 32-year-old man with worsening left knee pain. A 3-foot hip-to-ankle radiograph shows a 13-degree varus knee deformity. The patient sustained a major left knee injury 5 years ago and a confirmed complete anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. He managed this injury nonsurgically with a functional brace but experienced worsening pain. He was seen by an orthopaedic surgeon 18 months ago, and a medial meniscus tear was diagnosed; the tear was treated with an arthroscopic partial medial meniscectomy. Since then, his knee has been giving way more often, and he no longer feels safe working on a pitched roof. The patient received 6 months of formal physical therapy and was fitted for a new functional ACL brace, but he still has pain and instability. He believes he has exhausted his nonsurgical options and would like to undergo surgery. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
. ACL reconstruction and subsequent proximal tibial osteotomy
. ACL reconstruction alone
. Distal femoral osteotomy with simultaneous ACL reconstruction
. Proximal tibial osteotomy with subsequent ACL reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal tibial osteotomy with subsequent ACL reconstruction


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Proximal tibial osteotomy is the most appropriate intervention to correct varus malalignment and to reduce stress on the ACL. In some cases, proximal tibial osteotomy alone may address both pain and instability, but if instability persists, particularly in the setting in which instability can be dangerous, subsequent ACL reconstruction can further stabilize the knee with less stress on the graft after the correction of malalignment. Varus alignment places increased stress on the native or reconstructed ACL. ACL reconstruction should be performed only at the same time as or following proximal tibial osteotomy to correct alignment in the setting of varus malalignment. It is not appropriate to perform ACL reconstruction prior to proximal tibial osteotomy in this setting. Distal femoral osteotomy is not indicated to correct varus malalignment. Varus alignment places increased stress on the native or reconstructed ACL, and ACL reconstruction alone is not indicated for this patient.

Question 1522

Topic: Knee Sports

Figure 35 is the MR image of an 18-year-old man who has had knee pain with running for 5 months. What is the most appropriate treatment?

. Arthroscopic or open reduction and internal fixation with possible bone grafting
. Arthroscopic chondroplasty
. No weight-bearing activity for 6 weeks and then re-evaluate
. Retrograde subchondral drilling without fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic or open reduction and internal fixation with possible bone grafting


Explanation

DISCUSSIONThe MR image shows an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD), which is an acquired lesion of the subchondral bone. Patients with OCD initially report nonspecific pain and variable amounts of swelling. Initial radiographs help to identify the lesion and establish the physes status. MRI is useful for assessing potential for the lesion to heal with nonsurgical treatment. This lesion is unstable, considering the fluid line between the OCD and the underlying normal bone. Nonsurgical treatment is appropriate for small, stable lesions in patients with open physes and focuses on activity restriction for 3 to 9 months. Surgical treatment is necessary to address unstable or detached lesions. Stable lesions with intact articular cartilage can be treated with subchondral drilling to stimulate vascular ingrowth, with radiographic healing at an average of 4.4 months. Fixation is indicated for unstable or hinged lesions, and stabilization of the fragment can be achieved using a variety of implants through an arthroscopic or open approach. The fragment should be salvaged and the normal articular surface restored whenever possible.

Question 1523

Topic: Knee Sports
Injury to the popliteal artery during total knee arthroplasty (TKA) is most likely to occur when placing a sharp retractor
. directly posterior to the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL).
. posteromedial to the PCL.
. posterolateral to the PCL.
. in the posteromedial corner of the knee.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. posterolateral to the PCL.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Vascular complications during TKA are rare but do occur. Traditionally, it was taught that the popliteal artery was situated posterior to the PCL; however, more recent anatomic dissections have demonstrated that this artery is usually located posterolateral to the PCL.

Question 1524

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

below show the radiographs obtained from a year-old woman with a year history of progressive hip pain in the left groin with activity, which is unresponsive to activity modification and physical therapy. Examination reveals normal range of motion, with pain on anterior impingement testing. What treatment is associated with the best long-term results?

. Hip arthroscopy with labral repair B. Reverse periacetabular osteotomy C. Varus rotational osteotomy
. Open surgical dislocation with rim trimming

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open surgical dislocation with rim trimming


Explanation

DISCUSSION:This patient has symptomatic femoroacetabular impingement as well as clinical and radiographic signs of acetabular retroversion, including a cross-over sign, ischial spine sign, and posterior wall sign bilaterally. Good   midterm   to   long-term   outcomes   have   been   reported   with   reverse   (anteverting)   Bernese periacetabular osteotomy (PAO). In patients with less retroversion, open or arthroscopic rim trimming with labral refixation have shown good short-term results, but longer-term results have yet to be fully delineated. Isolated  hip  arthroscopy  and  labral  repair  would  not  be  indicated  without  addressing  the retroversion  deformity.  Femoral  varus  rotational  osteotomy  plays  no  role  in  the  treatment  of  this pathology.  Open  surgical  dislocation  with  rim  trimming  could  be  considered  in  patients  with  less deformity, but some studies have shown inferior long-term results compared with reverse PAO.

Question 1525

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

During treatment of rupture of the subscapularis tendon with associated biceps instability, treatment of the biceps tendon should include which of the following? Review Topic

. Tenosynovectomy
. Recentering
. Deepening of the bicipital groove
. Tenodesis or tenotomy
. Lysis of sheath adhesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tenodesis or tenotomy


Explanation

With subscapularis tendon ruptures that have biceps tendon pathology, treatment with tenodesis or tenotomy has improved clinical results. Subluxation or dislocation of the biceps tendon is common with subscapularis rupture. Dislocation of the biceps can occur either beneath the tendon, within the tendon, or extra-articularly. In all cases,the restraints to medial translations of the biceps have been disrupted. Attempts at recentering the biceps have not been successful, and clinical results appear to be improved when tenodesis or tenotomy is employed in the treatment of the unstable biceps associated with subscapularis tears.

Question 1526

Topic: Knee Sports

A collegiate division I football player ruptures his anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). After counseling him, you agree to perform a double-bundle ACL reconstruction. Which of the following is a correct statement for this technique? Review Topic

. The anteromedial (AM) bundle limits translation and the posterolateral (PL) bundle controls rotation.
. The PL bundle limits translation and the AM bundle controls rotation.
. The anterolateral (AL) bundle limits translation and the posteromedial (PM) bundle controls rotation.
. Both the AL and the PM control rotation equally.
. The AL bundle controls rotation and the PM bundle limits translation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The anteromedial (AM) bundle limits translation and the posterolateral (PL) bundle controls rotation.


Explanation

The ACL is composed of two anatomic bundles: the anteromedial (AM) and the posterolateral (PL). They are both considered important to the stability of the knee. Although they work in concert, the AM bundle controls translation, especially in flexion, whereas the PL bundle prevents rotation.

Question 1527

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Figure 49 shows an acute axial MRI scan of a right knee. What is the most likely diagnosis? Review Topic

. Patellar tendon rupture
. Lateral dislocation of the patella
. Quadriceps tendon rupture
. Anterior cruciate ligament rupture
. Posterior cruciate ligament rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patellar tendon rupture


Explanation

The MRI scan shows bone bruises in the medial aspect of the patella and the lateral aspect of the lateral femoral condyle. Both of these signs are typical for a lateral dislocation of the patella with spontaneous reduction. In addition, there may be associated tearing of the medial retinaculum or distal aspect of the vastus medialis.

Question 1528

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 25-year-old patient undergoes the procedure seen in Figure A. Which of the following statements best describes the incorporation of the graft and biopsy results of the graft at one year? Review Topic

. The transplanted chondrocytes are viable and articular cartilage heals. Biopsy shows type I collagen.
. The transplanted chondrocytes are viable and articular cartilage heals. Biopsy shows type II collagen.
. The transplanted chondrocytes are nonviable and cartilage is used as a scaffold for growth of new articular cartilage. Biopsy shows type II collagen.
. The transplanted chondrocytes are nonviable and articular cartilage is gradually replaced by fibrocartilage. Biopsy shows type I collagen.
. The transplanted chondrocytes are nonviable and articular cartilage is gradually replaced by fibrocartilage. Biopsy shows mixture of type I and II collagen.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The transplanted chondrocytes are viable and articular cartilage heals. Biopsy shows type I collagen.


Explanation

The patient underwent an osteochondral autograft transfer (OAT) with multiple plugs (also known as mosaicplasty) for a full-thickness chondral defect of the medial femoral condyle. The chondrocytes in the graft remain viable, the transferred cartilage heals, and biopsy reveals articular cartilage composed primarily of type II collagen.Articular cartilage defects can be treated by a variety of methods including debridement, fixation of unstable osteochondral fragments, marrow stimulation techniques (microfracture, abrasion chondroplasty), cartilage replacement techniques (osteochondral autograft and allograft) and cellular techniques (autologous chondrocyte implantation). Osteochondral autograft transfer is performed by harvesting normal articular cartilage with underlying bone from lesser weightbearing areas (e.g. intercondylar notch) and transferring the graft to a recipient socket at the site of the chondral defect. Graft incorporation occurs by integration of the bony graft into the subchondral bone and healing of the overlying cartilage layer.Hangody et al. reviewed the outcomes of autologous osteochondral mosaicplasty in professional athletes. They found successful outcomes similar to that of less athletic patients, despite a higher rate of preoperative osteoarthritic changes in the athletic population. The authors noted that histological evaluation revealed good graft incorporation in all 11 cases.Alford et al. authored a two part Current Concepts article on cartilage restoration. They constructed an algorithm (Illustration A) highlighting many factors that impact treatment choice, including patient activity level and defect characteristics such as location and size. This algorithm also illustrates comorbidities (malalignment, ligament insufficiency) that warrant correction prior to addressing the chondral defect.Figure A shows a full-thickness chondral defect (left) and subsequent osteochondral autograft transfer (right). Illustration A is a treatment algorithm for the management of chondral defects, as discussed above. Illustration B shows a microfracture procedure, a marrow stimulation technique resulting in fibrocartilage filling of the chondral defect. Illustration C shows an osteochondral allograft transplant, a cartilage replacement technique useful for large defects in which donor graft is obtained from a cadaver hemicondyle and transferred to a recipient socket at the site of the chondral defect. Illustration D shows the autologous chondrocyte implantation technique, a two-stage procedure consisting of 1. Cartilage biopsy for growth of autologouschondrocytes, and 2. Subsequent injection of autologous chondrocytes beneath a periosteal patch.Incorrect

Question 1529

Topic: Knee Sports
A 15-year-old boy reports feeling a pop and notes sudden giving way of the left knee while playing basketball. He has immediate pain and swelling in the knee. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 32. A small avulsion fragment from the lateral tibial margin is the only finding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Avulsion of the lateral collateral ligament
. Avulsion of the pes anserinus
. Avulsion of the iliotibial band
. Tear of the anterior cruciate ligament
. Tear of the posterior cruciate ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tear of the anterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

An avulsion fracture from the lateral tibial margin carries the eponym Segond fracture and is pathognomonic for an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. The fragment is located posterior to Gerdy’s tubercle and is superior and anterior to the fibular head. It represents an avulsion of the lateral capsular ligament of the knee and is caused by the same mechanism that causes the ACL tear. The pes anserinus is the insertion point of the medial hamstrings and would not be affected in a lateral avulsion injury. The posterior cruciate ligament may be seen on a lateral view if associated with an avulsion fragment, but a tear of the PCL generally cannot be diagnosed on an AP view. The insertion of the iliotibial band is broad and is unlikely to produce an avulsion injury such as that seen in the radiograph. This view is not consistent with the appearance of a lateral collateral ligament injury.

Question 1530

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
The provided images show the radiograph and the MRI scan obtained from a patient with a history of left hip pain. Which presurgical factor is most commonly associated with a poor outcome after a hip joint salvage procedure?
. Age older than 40 years
. Body mass index higher than 30
. Tönnis grade of 2 or higher
. Outerbridge grade of III or IV

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tönnis grade of 2 or higher


Explanation

MRI reveals an anterior labral tear, and the radiograph shows minimal arthritis with possible dysplasia. The most common location of pain in patients with a labral tear is the groin, and the most common physical finding is a positive impingement test result. Pain during sitting, clicking, and buttock pain are frequently described by patients with a labral tear, but these symptoms are less common than groin pain. A positive posterior impingement test finding is more common in patients with a posterior labral tear. Although age over 40 years and a body mass index higher than 30 can adversely affect clinical outcomes after joint preservation procedures such as PAO, hip arthroscopy, and femoral acetabular impingement surgery, the presence of hip arthritis on presurgical radiographs is the most commonly mentioned cause of failed hip joint preservation surgery. Tönnis grade is a radiographic measure of hip arthritis. A higher Outerbridge score is associated with more frequent poor outcomes after hip arthroscopy; however, the Outerbridge cartilage score is determined by direct visualization at the time of surgery. The Outerbridge score cannot be determined presurgically.

Question 1531

Topic: Knee Sports

What do the T2-weighted, fat-saturated MRI scans shown in Figures 1 through 4 reveal?

. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear, isolated
. PCL tear and medial meniscus tear
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear, isolated
. ACL tear and medial meniscus tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ACL tear and medial meniscus tear


Explanation

The MRI scans show that edema is noted on the femoral insertion of the ACL consistent with a high-grade or complete ACL tear. The ACL is not visualized on the sagittal view, although the torn meniscus can be seen in the notch. On the coronal image, there is an empty lateral wall sign indicating proximaldisruption of the ACL. The medial meniscus images show a disruption of normal meniscus morphology consistent with a bucket handle medial meniscus tear. Note the appearance on the sagittal MRI scan of what appears to be a second soft-tissue density in line with the PCL. This "double PCL" sign is highlyindicative of a displaced medial meniscus tear rather than a displaced lateral meniscus tear.

Question 1532

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
What tendon is closest to an appropriately placed anterolateral portal for ankle arthroscopy?
. Peroneus brevis
. Extensor digitorum longus
. Extensor hallucis
. Tibialis anterior
. Peroneus tertius

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peroneus tertius


Explanation

The appropriate placement of the anterolateral portal provides access to the lateral gutter of the joint while avoiding the superficial peroneal nerve. The safest location for the portal is approximately 4 mm lateral to the peroneus tertius tendon, the closest of the tendons listed to the anterolateral portal. Because the superficial peroneal nerve location is variable, attempts to visualize, palpate, or transilluminate the nerve are mandatory.

Question 1533

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Figure 1 shows the radiograph and Figure 2 shows the MRI scan obtained from a 37-year-old woman with a 2-month history of left hip pain. Which combination of a single symptom and examination finding is most likely in this scenario?
. Buttock pain; pain with hip extension, adduction, and external rotation while prone
. Pain during sitting; flexion abduction and external rotation of the hip
. Groin pain; pain with internal rotation and adduction while supine with the hip and knee flexed 90°
. Clicking; abductor lurch

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Groin pain; pain with internal rotation and adduction while supine with the hip and knee flexed 90°


Explanation

MRI reveals an anterior labral tear, and the radiograph shows minimal arthritis with possible dysplasia. The most common location of pain in patients with a labral tear is the groin, and the most common physical finding is a positive impingement test result. Pain during sitting, clicking, and buttock pain are frequently described by patients with a labral tear, but these symptoms are less common than groin pain.

Question 1534

Topic: Knee Sports

Figure 62 is an arthroscopic view of the intercondylar notch of a right knee from an anterolateral portal. What is the main function of the structure delineated by the black asterisks? Review Topic

. Resist anterior translation during knee flexion
. Resist posterior translation during knee flexion
. Resist rotatory loads during knee flexion
. Resist rotatory loads during knee extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Resist rotatory loads during knee extension


Explanation

The structure shown is the posterolateral bundle of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). This bundle is optimally positioned in the knee to resist rotatory forces during terminal knee extension. "Resist anterior translation during knee flexion" best describes the anteromedial bundle. "Resist rotatory loads during knee flexion" is unlikely because the posterolateral bundle is tightest during knee extension. The posterior cruciate ligament, not the ACL, functions to resist posterior translation.

Question 1535

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Which of the following methods of meniscal repair has the highest load to failure strength?
. Horizontal suture
. Vertical suture
. Mulberry knot
. T-fix suture
. Meniscal arrow

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vertical suture


Explanation

Numerous experimental studies have shown that vertical suture techniques are superior to all of the other noted methods. In fact, vertical sutures have been shown to be twice as strong as several of these techniques.

Question 1536

Topic: Knee Sports

Which of the following physical examination findings is most likely present in the condition producing the MRI findings shown in Figure 92? Review Topic

. Valgus laxity at 30 degrees of knee flexion
. Varus laxity at 30 degrees of knee flexion
. Posterior drawer
. Pivot shift
. Patellar apprehension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Valgus laxity at 30 degrees of knee flexion


Explanation

The T2-weighted sagittal MRI scan shows the classic "bone bruise" pattern seen with an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. These lesions are thought to represent subcortical trabecular hemorrhages and are manifested as an increase in signal intensity on T2-weighted images and diminished signal intensity on T1-weighted images. They are classically located in the mid-portion of the lateral femoral condyle and posterior aspect of the lateral tibial plateau. This is due to the fact that an ACL tear typically is the result of a valgus-external rotation of the femur on the fixed tibia. This places most of the weight-bearing stress on the lateral femoral condyle, which rotates laterally and impacts the posterior lip of the lateral tibial plateau. This may result in an impaction fracture if the force is great enough, but more frequently causes merely a microfracture of the involved subcortical trabeculae.

Question 1537

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Figure 43 shows the lateral radiograph of a patient who underwent anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction. Based on the tunnel placement shown in the radiograph, evaluation of postoperative knee range of motion will most likely show
. normal flexion and extension.
. loss of extension.
. loss of flexion.
. loss of flexion and extension.
. hyperextension.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. loss of flexion.


Explanation

The radiograph shows the correct tibial tunnel and anterior femoral tunnel; therefore, range of motion will most likely show loss of flexion.

Question 1538

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old man who works as a carpenter reports chronic right anterior shoulder pain and weakness. Examination reveals 90 degrees of external rotation (with the arm at the side) compared to 45 degrees on the left side. His lift-off examination is positive, along with a positive belly press finding. An MRI scan reveals a chronic, retracted atrophied subscapularis tendon. What is the most appropriate management of his shoulder pain and weakness? Review Topic

. Shoulder fusion
. Arthroscopic subscapularis repair
. Intra-articular corticosteroid injection
. Open subscapularis repair
. Pectoralis major transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Shoulder fusion


Explanation

Chronic subscapularis tendon ruptures preclude primary repair. In such instances, subcoracoid pectoralis major tendon transfers may improve function and diminish pain. The subcoracoid position of the transfer allows redirection of the pectoralis major in a direction recreating the vector of the subscapularis tendon. Shoulder fusion is a salvage procedure, and corticosteroid injection may reduce pain but will not improve function.

Question 1539

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
Figure 7 shows a sagittal T1-weighted MRI scan. What muscle/tendon is identified by the arrow?
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis
. Long head of triceps
. Latissimus dorsi

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teres minor


Explanation

The sagittal T1-weighted MRI scan is useful for interpreting the quality of muscle. The arrow is pointing to the teres minor.

Question 1540

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 36-year-old woman has pain and swelling of the anterior arm after undergoing arthroscopic shoulder surgery 8 months ago. At the time of the procedure, extensive debridement and synovectomy of the anterior aspect of the joint was performed to remove scar tissue that had formed after an open rotator cuff repair. Examination reveals a golf ball-sized swelling just lateral to the coracoid. The area is not warm and shows no other signs of infection. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 1. Management should now consist of
. aspiration of the ganglion cyst.
. repair of the supraspinatus tendon.
. repair of the subscapularis tendon.
. repair of the rotator cuff interval.
. repair of the anterior labrum.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. repair of the rotator cuff interval.


Explanation

Deficiency of the rotator cuff interval may be acquired or congenital. In this patient, extensive debridement of the rotator cuff interval capsule at the time of arthroscopy most likely is the cause of the defect seen on the MRI scan. Surgical closure of the defect is the treatment of choice. During the repair, the shoulder should be placed in 30 degrees of external rotation to avoid overtightening. Care should be taken to include the leading edge of both the supraspinatus and subscapularis tendons in the repair because the rotator cuff interval capsular tissue is likely to be of poor quality.