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Question 1461

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 32-year-old patient reports progressively increasing pain and stiffness after undergoing arthroscopic shoulder stabilization 1 year ago. The stabilization procedure was a Bankart repair with anchor fixation and supplemented with the heat probe. Radiographs are shown in Figures 45a and 45b. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Subscapularis failure
. Frozen shoulder
. Recurrent instability
. Loose body
. Chondrolysis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis failure


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Postshoulder stabilization chondrolysis is a rare but devastating complication.  It has been implicated with the use of the radiofrequency heat probe in some patients.REFERENCES: Levine WN, Clark AM Jr, D’Alessandro DF, et al: Chondrolysis following arthroscopic thermal capsulorrhaphy to treat shoulder instability: A report of two cases.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:616-621.Petty DH, Jazrawi LM, Estrada LS, et al: Glenohumeral chondrolysis after shoulder arthroscopy: Case reports and review of the literature.  Am J Sports Med 2004;32:509-515.

Question 1462

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old woman who is an avid tennis player reports the insidious onset of progressive left shoulder pain for the past 2 months. Examination reveals full range of motion with a positive impingement sign. Strength in the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles is normal, although stress testing is painful. An earlier subacromial cortisone injection provided good, but only temporary relief. An AP radiograph of the left shoulder is shown in Figure 10. Management should now consist of

. a rotator cuff exercise program and anti-inflammatory drugs.
. repeat subacromial cortisone injections as necessary.
. open subacromial decompression.
. arthroscopic evacuation of calcium deposits.
. open rotator cuff repair.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. arthroscopic evacuation of calcium deposits.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph shows calcific deposits within the substance of the supraspinatus tendon.  Patients with this condition are prone to recurrent bouts of acute inflammation in the shoulder.  While the response to cortisone injection is often dramatic, repeated injections are not recommended because of injury to the collagen fibers.  Good results have been obtained with arthroscopic evacuation of the calcium deposits.  In one study, the addition of a subacromial decompression did not improve the results.REFERENCES: Jerosch J, Strauss JM, Schmiel S: Arthroscopic treatment of calcific tendinitis of the shoulder.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1998;7:30-37.Ark JW, Flock TJ, Flatow EL, Bigliani LU: Arthroscopic treatment of calcific tendinitis of the shoulder.  Arthroscopy 1992;8:183-188.

Question 1463

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A right-handed 24-year-old woman underwent an arthroscopic Bankart repair for recurrent anterior dislocations 9 months ago. Despite extensive physical therapy for 8 months, the patient has very limited range of motion (elevation to 130 degrees and external rotation to 10 degrees with the arm at the side). Shoulder radiographs are normal. The next step in management should consist of

. cessation of physical therapy and acceptance of the limited range of motion.
. additional physical therapy for 3 to 4 months.
. arthroscopic capsular release.
. open release with Z-plasty lengthening of the subscapularis tendon.
. closed manipulation under anesthesia.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. arthroscopic capsular release.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Arthroscopic capsular release is an effective means of treating stiffness that is the result of capsular contractures, such as in the case of a tight Bankart repair.  Open release allows lengthening of a surgically shortened subscapularis, such as after a tight Putti-Platt repair.  Additional physical therapy is unlikely to be effective because 8 months of treatment has failed to result in improvement.  Accepting this degree of asymptomatic limited motion is not advisable because of the functional limitations for the patient and the increased risk of postoperative degenerative arthritis.REFERENCES: Warner JJ, Allen AA, Marks PH, Wong P: Arthroscopic release of postoperative capsular contracture of the shoulder.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1997;79:1151-1158.Harryman DT II, Matsen FA III, Sidles JA: Arthroscopic management of refractory shoulder stiffness.  Arthroscopy 1997;13:133-147.

Question 1464

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 26-year-old right hand-dominant man has had right shoulder pain for the past 6 months. History reveals that he was the starting pitcher for his high school team. Activity modification, physical therapy, cortisone injection, and anti-inflammatory drugs have failed to improve his symptoms. He has a positive O’Brien’s active compression test. What is the next most appropriate step in the diagnosis of this patient?

. Diagnostic arthroscopy
. MRI-arthrography
. Stress radiographs
. CT
. Weighted radiographs of the arm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MRI-arthrography


Explanation

DISCUSSION: MRI-arthrography has been shown to be an accurate technique for assessing the glenoid labrum in patients with suspected labral tears.  Often standard MRI technique will not identify labral lesions.  The use of MRI-arthrography with an intra-articular injection of gadolinium provides improved visualization of labral lesions.  Bencardino and associates demonstrated a sensitivity of 89%, a specificity of 91%, and an accuracy of 90% in detecting labral lesions.  SLAP lesions can be visualized on coronal oblique sequences as a deep cleft between the superior labrum and the glenoid that extends well around and below the biceps anchor.  Often, contrast will diffuse into the labral fragment, causing it to appear ragged or indistinct.REFERENCES: Applegate GR, Hewitt M, Snyder SJ, et al: Chronic labral tears: Value of magnetic resonance arthrography in evaluating the glenoid labrum and labral-bicipital complex.  Arthroscopy 2004;20:959-963.Bencardino JT, Beltran J, Rosenberg ZS, et al: Superior labrum anterior-posterior lesions: Diagnosis with MR arthrography of the shoulder.  Radiology 2000;214:267-271.Nam EK, Snyder SJ: The diagnosis and treatment of superior labrum, anterior and posterior (SLAP) lesions.  Am J Sports Med 2003;31:798-810.

Question 1465

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old recreational basketball player reports shoulder pain following a sprawl for a rebound. While examination reveals that he can actively elevate the arm with pain, a subacromial injection fails to provide relief. An MRI scan reveals medial subluxation of the long head of the biceps. Which of the following structures most likely has also been injured?

. Inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Middle glenohumeral ligament
. Superior labrum
. Subscapularis tendon
. Supraspinatus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis tendon


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Subscapularis tears can be associated with disruption of the transverse ligament supporting the biceps.  The remaining aspects of the rotator cuff, superior labrum, and capsule can be intact with this injury.REFERENCES: Petersson CJ: Spontaneous medial dislocation of the tendon of the long biceps brachii.  Clin Orthop 1986;211:224-227.Gerber C, Sebesta A: Impingement of the deep surface of the subscapularis tendon and the reflection pulley on the anterosuperior glenoid rim: A preliminary report.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2000;9:483-490.

Question 1466

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

What factor highly correlates with poor outcomes after surgery for femoroacetabular impingement? Review Topic

. Age younger than 20
. Degenerative arthritis
. Prominence of the femoral head in cam impingement
. The patient is a professional athlete

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Age younger than 20


Explanation

A systematic review of case studies looking at the results of surgical treatment for femoroacetabular impingement showed good results for most patients, with the exception of those with preoperative radiographs showing osteoarthritis or Outerbridge grade III or grade IV cartilage damage noted intraoperatively. Both Byrd and Jones and Philippon and associates have shown good surgical results for this condition among professional athletes. Likewise, Fabricant and associates demonstrated good surgical results among adolescent patients with an average age of

Question 1467

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A football lineman who sustained a traumatic injury while blocking during a game now reports that his shoulder is slipping while pass blocking. Examination reveals no apprehension in abduction and external rotation; however, he reports pain with posterior translation of the shoulder. He has full strength in external rotation, internal rotation, and supraspinatus testing. What is the pathology most likely responsible for his symptoms? Review Topic

. Anterior glenoid rim fracture tear
. Anterior inferior labral tear
. Posterior labral tear
. Total capsular laxity
. Osteochondral defect of the humeral head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior glenoid rim fracture tear


Explanation

Traumatic posterior instability is a common finding in football players, especially in the blocking positions as well as in the defensive linemen and linebackers. A traumatic blow to the outstretched arm results in posterior glenohumeral forces. Labral detachment at the glenoid rim is common. Patients report slipping or pain with posteriorly directed pressure. Rarely do these patients have true dislocations that require reduction; however, recurrent episodes of subluxation or pain are not uncommon. Posterior repair has been shown to be successful in the treatment of traumatic instability.

Question 1468

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 29-year-old man who lifts weights states that he injured his left shoulder while performing a bench press 2 days ago. The following morning he noted ecchymosis and swelling in the left chest wall. Examination reveals ecchymosis and tenderness and deformity in the left anterior chest wall and axillary fold that is accentuated with resisted adduction of the arm. Passive range of motion beyond 90 degrees of forward flexion and 45 degrees of external rotation is extremely painful. Glenohumeral stability is difficult to assess because of severe guarding. Figure 29 shows an MRI scan. Management should consist of

. proximal biceps tenodesis.
. application of a sling for 3 weeks, followed by physical therapy.
. anterior capsulolabral reconstruction.
. repair of the subscapularis tendon.
. repair of the pectoralis major tendon.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. proximal biceps tenodesis.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Rupture of the pectoralis major tendon most commonly occurs during bench pressing.  Wolfe and associates have shown that the most inferiorly located fibers of the sternal head lengthen disproportionately during the final 30 degrees of humeral extension during the bench press.  This creates a mechanical disadvantage in the final portion of the eccentric phase of the lift; with forceful flexion of the shoulder these maximally stretched fibers may rupture.  In most patients, particularly in young athletes, the treatment of choice is anatomic repair of the ruptured tendon to its insertion in the proximal humerus either with suture anchors or transosseous sutures.  Following surgery, most patients experience a near normal return of strength and significant improvement in the cosmetic appearance of the deformity.  While more technically challenging, repair of chronic rupture is possible and is indicated in some patients.REFERENCES: Wolfe SW, Wickiewicz TL, Cavanaugh JT: Ruptures of the pectoralis major muscle: An anatomic and clinical analysis.  Am J Sports Med 1992;20:587-593.Schepsis AA, Grafe MW, Jones HP, Lemos MJ: Rupture of the pectoralis major muscle: Outcome after repair of acute and chronic injuries.  Am J Sports Med 2000;28:9-15.

Question 1469

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

03 A 35 year old man sustains a dislocation of his dominant shoulder in a fall. The shoulder is reduced and placed in a sling, but returns 6 hours later with shoulder dislocated again, despite use of a sling. A CT scan is shown in figure 36. Management should now consist of

. replacement of the sling with a modified spica cast
. open reduction and internal fixation
. percutaneous pin fixation
. arthroscopic labral repair
. arthroscopy and removal of the loose fragmentback   answerQuestion 125.03

Correct Answer & Explanation

. replacement of the sling with a modified spica cast


Explanation

AM J Sports Med 1998;26:41-45 JBJS Am 1993;75:479-484back to this question go to explanation

Question 1470

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Figures 10a and 10b show the radiographs of an athletic 9-year-old boy who has activity-related anterior knee pain with intact active knee extension. Examination reveals tenderness to palpation over the inferior pole of the patella. There is no effusion or ligamentous instability. Initial management should consist of

. long leg cast immobilization for 6 weeks.
. open reduction and internal fixation.
. activity restrictions and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
. cessation of sports for 6 to 18 months.
. diagnostic arthroscopy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. long leg cast immobilization for 6 weeks.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs show fragmentation of the inferior pole of the patella.  This finding, along with the clinical presentation, is most consistent with Sindig-Larsen-Johansson disease.  This is an overuse syndrome commonly seen in boys ages 9 to 11 years.  The differential diagnosis includes bipartite patella and patellar sleeve fracture.  Like most overuse syndromes, Sindig-Larsen-Johansson disease responds to activity modification and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.  While symptoms usually resolve with short periods of activity restriction, radiographic findings may persist.REFERENCES: Stanitski CL: Anterior knee pain syndromes in the adolescent.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:1407-1416.Stanitski CL: Anterior knee pain syndromes in the adolescent, in Schafer M (ed): Instructional Course Lectures 43.  Rosemont, Ill, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1994, pp 211-220.

Question 1471

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Storage of musculoskeletal allografts by cryopreservation is achieved by

. replacing water in the tissue with alcohol to a moisture level of 5% and then using a vacuum process to remove the alcohol from the tissue.
. maintaining maximum cellular viability of fresh tissue without long-term storage.
. using chemicals to remove cellular water and controlled rate freezing to prevent ice crystal formation.
. freezing the graft twice and packaging the tissue without solution at minus 80 degrees C.
. freezing the graft in water without an antibiotic solution soak during quarantine, with final storage in liquid nitrogen.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. replacing water in the tissue with alcohol to a moisture level of 5% and then using a vacuum process to remove the alcohol from the tissue.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Cryopreservation uses chemicals to remove cellular water and controlled rate freezing to prevent ice crystal formation.  The tissue is procured, cooled to wet ice temperature for quarantine, and then stored in a container with cryoprotectant solution of dimethylsulfoxide or glycerol which displaces the cellular water.  The controlled rate freezing is then done to prevent ice crystal formation.  Fresh allografts are not frozen in order to maintain maximum cellular viability, and this process limits the shelf life of osteochondral allografts.  Freeze-drying involves replacement of water in the tissue with alcohol to a moisture level of5% and then uses a vacuum process to remove the alcohol from the tissue.  Preparation of fresh frozen grafts involves freezing the graft twice and packaging the tissue without solution atminus 80 degrees C.REFERENCES: American Association of Tissue Banks: Standards for Tissue Banking.  MacLean, VA, American Association of Tissue Banks, 1999.Vangsness CT Jr, Triffon MJ, Joyce MJ, et al: Soft tissue allograft reconstruction of the human knee: A survey of the American Association of Tissue Banks.  Am J Sports Med 1996;24:230-234.Brautigan BE, Johnson DL, Caborn DM, et al: Allograft tissues, in DeLee JC, Drez D Jr (eds): Orthopaedic Sports Medicine: Principles and Practice.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2003, pp 205-213.

Question 1472

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

During what phase of the throwing motion is the highest torque measured across the glenohumeral joint?

. Wind-up
. Cocking
. Early acceleration
. Late acceleration
. Follow through

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wind-up


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Electromyography is used to evaluate muscular firing patterns about the shoulder during the throwing sequence.  The rotator cuff muscles and biceps are relatively inactive during the acceleration phase, whereas the pectoralis major, serratus anterior, latissimus dorsi, and subscapularis show highest activity.  By contrast, deceleration is accomplished by the rotator cuff musculature and the larger trunk muscles acting in concert to slow down the arm.  It is during this phase of follow through that the highest torque is measured secondary to eccentric muscle contraction.REFERENCES: Jobe FW, Moynes DR, Tibone JE, Perry J: An EMG analysis of the shoulder in pitching: A second report.  Am J Sports Med 1984;12:218-220.Pappas AM, Zawacki RM, Sulliva TJ: Biomechanics of baseball pitching: A preliminary report.  Am J Sports Med 1985;13:216-222.Altcheck DW, Dines DM: Shoulder injuries in the throwing athlete.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1995;3:159-165.

Question 1473

Topic: Knee Sports

During right knee anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, after drilling an appropriately positioned and referenced tibial tunnel, the surgeon finds that the transtibial guide is placing the femoral tunnel at 11:30 within the intercondylar notch. Which of the following choices will best enable appropriate graft placement in this clinical scenario? Review Topic

. Revise the tibial tunnel to be more oblique.
. Revise the tibial tunnel to be more posterior.
. Convert to a transtibial double-bundle ACL.
. Prepare the femoral tunnel via an anteromedial portal or two-incision technique.
. Hyperflex the knee and place the femoral tunnel with the transtibial guide.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revise the tibial tunnel to be more oblique.


Explanation

Anatomic placement of the femoral tunnel is best achieved in this clinical scenario by drilling the femoral tunnel through the anteromedial portal or via a two-incision technique. Several recent studies have demonstrated the difficulty that may be encountered in restoring true ACL anatomy on the femoral side when placing a femoral tunnel through a transtibial technique. While this is not always the case and this technique may be reasonable and sufficient, it is important for orthopaedic surgeons to critically assess tunnel placement intraoperatively and postoperatively tominimize errant tunnel placement, demonstrated in the literature as the most common cause of ACL failure and need for revision. In this not uncommon clinical scenario, simply converting to a two-incision ACL technique or drilling through the anteromedial portal with the knee hyperflexed will permit accurate femoral tunnel placement and increase the likelihood of an optimal clinical outcome. Femoral tunnel accuracy with these techniques is enhanced by a lower starting point in the intercondylar notch. Familiarity with these techniques is valuable for surgeons performing ACL reconstruction. Revising the tibial tunnel in this scenario would likely lead to bone compromise of the proximal tibia and may interfere with graft fixation and incorporation. Converting to a double-bundle ACL with a transtibial technique would not correct the vertical femoral tunnel. Hyperflexion of the knee may improve femoral tunnel placement to some extent, but is unlikely to allow anatomic placement of a femoral tunnel when the transtibial guide lies in a clearly excessive vertical position.

Question 1474

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 20-year-old woman with a history of subtotal meniscectomy has a painful knee. What associated condition is a contraindication to proceeding with a meniscal allograft?

. Grade I posterior cruciate ligament tear
. Grade II medial collateral ligament tear
. Lateral meniscal tear
. 5 degrees of genu varum
. x 5-mm patellar chondral lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Grade I posterior cruciate ligament tear


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Patients with significant joint malalignment place increased stresses on the allograft, and this malalignment must be corrected to decrease the likelihood of meniscal allograft failure.  None of the other options would lead to failure of the allograft.REFERENCE: Koval KJ (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, p 499.

Question 1475

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 27-year-old man has recurrent right shoulder instability. He first dislocated his shoulder in college while playing rugby and was treated nonsurgically. Since then, he has sustained nearly 1 dozen dislocations and says that his shoulder always feels “loose.” The shoulder recently dislocated in his sleep and while he was putting on clothes. Which factor is a contraindication to an arthroscopic soft-tissue repair?

. A 270-degree labral tear
. His intention to continue contact sport activities
. Anterior bony loss measuring 30% of inferior glenoid width
. An inferior glenohumeral ligament avulsion (HAGL) lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A 270-degree labral tear


Explanation

DISCUSSIONThere is much debate in the literature regarding optimal techniques for treatment of shoulder instability. Although some studies suggest that open stabilization may result in lower recurrence rates in contact athletes, this approach is now under scrutiny. Extensive labral involvement (posterior labral involvement in this scenario) is likely more accessible via arthroscopic methods. Although HAGL lesions may be more easily accessible via an open approach (particularly for inexperienced arthroscopists), numerous authors describe successful repair via arthroscopic techniques. Among these responses, the strongest indication for an open approach, including possible bony transfer, is high-grade glenoid bone loss. Although the critical amount of bone loss is a topic of debate, most surgeons and authors suggest a cutoff of 20% to 25%.CLINICAL SITUATION FOR QUESTIONS 90 THROUGH 92Figure 90 is the radiograph of a 14-year-old pitcher who plays in a year-round baseball program and has vague pain in his dominant shoulder. The pain occurs with throwing, and it has been worsening for 2 months. Pain typically occurs during the late cocking phase of throwing. He has no tenderness of the rotator cuff and 5/5 rotator cuff strength. His arc of motion is symmetric between his dominant and nondominant arms. The sulcus sign is negative.

Question 1476

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

An 18-year-old woman sustains a twisting injury of the knee while skiing. Figures 7a and 7b show the radiograph and coronal MRI scan of the knee. In addition to the injury shown, what is the most likely associated injury?

. Medial collateral ligament rupture
. Patellar dislocation
. Patellar tendon rupture
. Anterior cruciate ligament rupture
. Posterior cruciate ligament rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial collateral ligament rupture


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The MRI scan shows a Segond fracture, which is a small avulsion of the lateral joint capsule from the anterolateral aspect of the proximal tibia.  It is almost always associated with anterior cruciate ligament rupture and often with a tear of either the medial or lateral meniscus.REFERENCES: Goldman AB, Pavlov H, Rubenstein D: The Segond fracture of the proximal tibia: A small avulsion that reflects major ligamentous damage.  Am J Roentgenol 1988;151:1163-1167.Sanders TG, Miller MD: A systematic approach to magnetic resonance imaging interpretation of sports medicine injuries of the knee.  Am J Sports Med 2005;33:131-148.Miller TT: Magnetic resonance imaging of the knee, in Insall JN, Scott WN (eds): Surgery of the Knee, ed 4.  Philadelphia, PA, Churchill Livingstone, 2006, vol 1, pp 201-224.

Question 1477

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A patient with deficient anteroinferior bone stock undergoes a Latarjet procedure that transfers a portion of the coracoid to the glenoid rim and secures it with two screws. After surgery, the patient reports numbness on the anterolateral forearm. To verify the diagnosis, what muscle should be tested for strength?

. Axillary
. Abductor pollicis brevis
. Supinator
. Triceps
. Biceps

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary


Explanation

DISCUSSION: A Latarjet procedure is similar to a Bristow procedure, but with the Latarjet procedure a larger portion of the coracoid is transferred to the scapular neck at the anteroinferior glenoid.  As in a Bristow procedure, if the fragment is pulled or twisted during the dissection or during fixation, the musculocutaneous nerve can be injured.  With loss of biceps function, elbow flexion and forearm supination will be weaker.REFERENCES: Ho E, Cofield RH, Balm MR, Hattrup SJ, Rowland CM: Neurologic complications of surgery for anterior shoulder instability.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1999;8:266-270.Boardman ND 3rd, Cofield RH: Neurologic complications of shoulder surgery.  Clin Orthop 1999;368:44-53.Allain J, Goutallier D, Glorion C: Long-term results of the Latarjet procedure for the treatment of anterior instability of the shoulder. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:841-852.

Question 1478

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old man reports a 2-year history of right groin pain. The pain is made worse with hip flexion, prolonged sitting, and cycling. A radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 16a and 16b. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. What is the best surgical option?

. Arthroscopic labral debridement
. Reverse periacetabular osteotomy
. Resurfacing hip arthroplasty
. Femoral neck osteochondroplasty and resection of the detached labrum
. Femoral neck osteochondroplasty and reattachment of the labrum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic labral debridement


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has cam-type femoral acetabular impingement. He still has a well-maintained joint space without significant degenerative changes, and given his age a joint preserving procedure would be the procedure of choice. A reverse periacetabular osteotomy may be considered in a retroverted acetabulum; however, that is not the case here. A femoral neck osteochondroplasty is required to remove the cam of bone and reshape the femoral head- neck junction to improve the femoral head/neck ratio (femoral head offset). Typically, in isolated cam impingement, cartilage damage in the anterior-superior acetabulum precedes labral damage. Labral debridement alone does not address the pathology of impingement. In cases where labral detachment is present, reattachment has been shown to be superior to labral resection.REFERENCES: Espinosa N, Rothenfluh DA, Beck M, et al: Treatment of femoro-acetabular impingement: Preliminary results of labral refixation. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2006;88:925-935.Parvizi J, Leunig M, Ganz R: Femoroacetabular impingement. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2007;15:561-570. Trousdale RT: Acetabular osteotomy: Indications and results. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2004;429:182-187.

Question 1479

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 73-year-old man who underwent repair of the left rotator cuff 6 years ago reports good pain relief but notes residual weakness of the left shoulder, especially with overhead tasks. He denies having pain at night and has minimal discomfort with activities of daily living but is dissatisfied with his shoulder strength. Radiographs show an acromiohumeral interval of 2 mm. Appropriate management should consist of

. an exercise program.
. revision rotator cuff repair using local tissue transposition.
. revision rotator cuff repair using allograft.
. latissimus dorsi transfer.
. combined latissimus dorsi and teres major transfer.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. an exercise program.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: An exercise program to strengthen the deltoid and remaining rotator cuff will most likely offer the best results.  Revision rotator cuff surgery yields better results in decreasing pain than improving strength and function, and this patient has only minimal pain.  Tendon transfers, involving the use of the latissimus dorsi or teres major, have been used when the rotator cuff is deemed irreparable but are not indicated in elderly patients with minimal symptoms.REFERENCES: Bigliani LU, Cordasco FA, McIlveen SJ, Musso ES: Operative treatment of failed repairs of the rotator cuff.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:1505-1515.DeOrio JK, Cofield RH: Results of a second attempt at surgical repair of a failed initial rotator-cuff repair.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1984;66:563-567.Gerber C, Vinh TS, Hertel R, Hess CW: Latissimus dorsi transfer for the treatment of massive tears of the rotator cuff: A preliminary report.  Clin Orthop 1988;232:51-61.

Question 1480

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

What is the most accurate description of the relationship between gender and knee loading during landing while playing basketball?

. Males have greater total valgus knee loading.
. Females have greater total valgus knee loading.
. Males have greater total varus knee loading.
. Females have greater total varus knee loading.
. There is no gender difference in total varus or valgus knee loading.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Males have greater total valgus knee loading.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Ford and associates studied 81 high school basketball players and found that females landed with greater total valgus knee loading and a greater maximum valgus knee angle than male athletes.  Hewett and associates reported in a study of 205 female athletes that those with increased dynamic valgus and high abduction loads were at increased risk of anterior cruciate ligament injury.REFERENCES: Hewett TE, Myer GD, Ford KR, et al: Biomechanical measures of neuromuscular control and valgus loading of the knee predict anterior cruciate ligament injury risk in female athletes: A prospective study.  Am J Sports Med 2005;33:492-501.Ford KR, Meyer GD, Hewett TE: Valgus knee motion during landing in high school female and male basketball players.  Med Sci Sports Exer 2003;35:1745-1750.