5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 40-year-old male sustains a seizure and subsequently complains of severe left shoulder pain with restricted external rotation. An AP radiograph of the shoulder shows a symmetric appearance of the humeral head with a loss of the normal half-moon overlap of the humeral head and glenoid. What is the classic radiologic descriptor for this finding?

During arthroscopic evaluation of a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, an anterior labroligamentous periosteal sleeve avulsion (ALPSA) lesion is identified. How does this primarily differ pathoanatomically from a classic Bankart lesion?

A 19-year-old collegiate wrestler suffers a first-time traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation. After successful closed reduction, what single factor places this patient at the highest statistical risk for recurrent instability if managed non-operatively?

In cases of critical glenoid bone loss with an off-track Hill-Sachs lesion, a remplissage procedure is often performed concurrently with a Bankart repair. What does the arthroscopic remplissage technique specifically involve?

A 28-year-old athlete undergoes a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior instability. Postoperatively, radiographs reveal that the coracoid graft was positioned too laterally, overhanging the articular surface of the glenoid. What is the most likely long-term complication of this technical error?

A 32-year-old male sustains a posterior shoulder dislocation complicated by a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion that involves 30% of the articular surface. Which of the following procedures (McLaughlin procedure) was traditionally described for managing this specific bony defect?

A 29-year-old male with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations is undergoing a 3D CT scan to evaluate for bipolar bone loss. Based on current literature, a Hill-Sachs lesion is most likely to 'engage' the anterior glenoid rim during which specific arm position?

During a Latarjet procedure, an osteotomy of the coracoid process is performed. To maximize the bone block size while avoiding detachment of the coracoclavicular ligaments, the osteotomy should be made exactly at what anatomical landmark?

A 25-year-old athlete undergoes an MRI arthrogram for chronic shoulder pain following a mild subluxation event. The scan reveals a superficial anterior-inferior labral tear associated with adjacent articular cartilage damage on the glenoid, but the anterior band of the IGHL is intact. What is the diagnosis?

A 34-year-old male presents with locked posterior shoulder dislocation after a seizure. CT reveals a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 30% of the anterior humeral head articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

During diagnostic arthroscopy for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon identifies an anterior labral tear. The anterior scapular periosteum is intact, but the labrum and inferior glenohumeral ligament have healed medially on the anterior glenoid neck.

What is the classic eponym for this lesion?

A 22-year-old overhead athlete undergoes an arthroscopic Bankart repair with a concurrent remplissage procedure. Which of the following kinematic changes is most likely to result from the addition of the remplissage?

A 24-year-old rugby player has recurrent shoulder instability. 3D CT reconstructions are analyzed to determine the 'Glenoid Track'.

How is the width of the intact glenoid track calculated?

During an open Latarjet procedure, the coracoid process is osteotomized and transferred to the anterior glenoid. To minimize the risk of injury to the musculocutaneous nerve, the surgeon must be aware of its anatomical relationship. At approximately what distance distal to the tip of the coracoid process does the musculocutaneous nerve typically enter the coracobrachialis muscle?

A 17-year-old male suffers his first anterior shoulder dislocation while playing hockey. Following closed reduction, the patient and his parents ask about the risk of recurrence if treated non-operatively. Which of the following is the single greatest risk factor for recurrent instability in this patient?

During a Latarjet procedure, the subscapularis muscle can be managed either by a split in line with its fibers or by a tenotomy. Proponents of the subscapularis split argue it provides which specific anatomical and functional advantage?

Recent literature regarding anterior shoulder instability highlights the concept of 'subcritical' bone loss, where soft-tissue stabilization alone may result in poorer clinical outcomes in high-demand patients. What percentage of anterior glenoid bone loss is most commonly defined as the threshold for subcritical bone loss?

A 22-year-old football player presents with a posterior labral tear and posterior instability.

During physical examination, which of the following tests is most specific for diagnosing a symptomatic posterior labral tear or recurrent posterior subluxation?

A 28-year-old male with recurrent anterior shoulder instability and 30% glenoid bone loss underwent a Latarjet procedure 2 years ago. He now presents with a failed Latarjet, hardware loosening, and recurrent dislocations. A salvage procedure is planned. Which of the following describes an Eden-Hybinette procedure?

In the evaluation of anterior shoulder instability, a Hill-Sachs lesion is considered 'engaging' if its long axis is parallel to the anterior glenoid rim when the arm is in which of the following positions?