5. Sports Medicine MCQs

What is the optimal knee flexion angle for tensioning a posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) graft during a single-bundle reconstruction?

When comparing functional rehabilitation following operative versus nonoperative treatment of acute Achilles tendon ruptures, nonoperative management combined with an early functional rehabilitation protocol has been shown to result in:

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI arthrography reveals a Type II SLAP lesion. The pathogenesis of this specific injury is most commonly associated with:

A 55-year-old female presents with acute medial knee pain after a deep squat. MRI reveals a posterior root tear of the medial meniscus. If left untreated, this injury alters knee biomechanics most similarly to:

During the physical examination portion of your oral answer, the examiner asks how you would assess for a subscapularis tear. Which test is considered the most specific for isolated subscapularis pathology?

An examiner asks you about imaging for a suspected rotator cuff tear. For initial evaluation, which imaging modality is generally preferred due to its balance of cost-effectiveness, accessibility, and diagnostic accuracy?

An examiner probes your understanding of rotator cuff repair indications. Which factor is generally considered a strong indication for surgical repair of an acute, traumatic full-thickness rotator cuff tear in an otherwise healthy, active patient?

When discussing the expected outcome following an arthroscopic Bankart repair for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, what complication is crucial to mention to the examiner as a potential risk, particularly regarding range of motion?

You are asked to describe the rehabilitation principles following an arthroscopic rotator cuff repair. What is the primary goal during the initial phase (0-6 weeks post-op)?

A 22-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability following an initial dislocation during a rugby match. Advanced imaging reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

A 55-year-old male laborer presents with chronic right shoulder pain and weakness. Examination reveals a positive Hornblower's sign and severe weakness in external rotation. MRI demonstrates an isolated, massive, and irreparable tear of the posterosuperior rotator cuff with advanced fatty infiltration. Which of the following tendon transfers is most appropriate to restore external rotation?

A 22-year-old baseball pitcher undergoes arthroscopic repair of a Type II SLAP tear. Postoperatively, the patient develops profound stiffness in the shoulder. Placing arthroscopic knots posterior to the biceps anchor during the repair is most likely to restrict which specific arc of motion?

A 35-year-old professional volleyball player presents with isolated weakness in shoulder external rotation. Supraspinatus strength is normal on empty-can testing. Inspection reveals prominent atrophy limited to the infraspinatus fossa. Where is the most likely anatomic location of nerve entrapment?

A 50-year-old male sustains a forced external rotation injury to his shoulder. He presents with increased passive external rotation and a positive belly-press test. MRI confirms an isolated, full-thickness retraction of the subscapularis tendon. Which associated anatomic structure is at the highest risk of concomitant instability or injury?

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A CT scan of the shoulder reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 40-year-old male presents with a locked, internally rotated right shoulder following a generalized seizure. Imaging confirms a posterior shoulder dislocation with a 30% reverse Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 22-year-old male collegiate football player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan of the shoulder reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate to minimize recurrence?

A 28-year-old bodybuilder feels a sudden pop and tearing sensation in his anterior chest wall while performing a heavy eccentric bench press. On examination, he has loss of the anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation. If surgical repair is performed, the tendon should be reattached to which of the following anatomic locations?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 27% anterior glenoid bone loss. An MRI confirms a concomitant Hill-Sachs lesion, and the lesion is determined to be "off-track." Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

A 28-year-old elite volleyball attacker presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. Physical examination reveals prominent atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa, while the supraspinatus bulk is normal. Which of the following anatomic structures is the most likely site of pathology?