This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 5. Sports Medicine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 941
Topic: Knee Sports
A 14-year-old boy presents with vague knee pain and intermittent catching. Radiographs demonstrate an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion. Which of the following is the most classic anatomic location for this lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterolateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
Explanation
Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) most commonly affects the knee. The classic location, accounting for about 70% of cases, is the posterolateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle.
Question 942
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coracoid process transfer (Latarjet procedure)
Explanation
The Latarjet procedure is indicated for patients with recurrent anterior shoulder instability and significant anterior glenoid bone loss (>20-25%). Arthroscopic or open Bankart repairs have unacceptably high failure rates in the setting of critical glenoid bone loss.
Question 943
Topic: Knee Sports
A 55-year-old female presents with acute medial knee pain and a feeling of "giving way" after descending stairs. MRI shows a radial tear adjacent to the posterior horn medial meniscus attachment and 4 mm of medial meniscal extrusion. What is the biomechanical consequence of this injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Loss of hoop stresses leading to contact mechanics equivalent to a total meniscectomy
Explanation
A meniscal root tear disrupts circumferential hoop stresses, rendering the meniscus functionally incompetent. This increases peak contact pressures to levels equivalent to a total meniscectomy, often leading to rapid progression of osteoarthritis.
Question 944
Topic: Knee Sports
A 19-year-old soccer player sustains a twisting knee injury. Radiographs reveal an avulsion fracture of the anterolateral tibial plateau.
This radiographic finding is virtually pathognomonic for an injury to which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior cruciate ligament
Explanation
The image describes a Segond fracture, an avulsion of the anterolateral capsule (anterolateral ligament) from the lateral tibial plateau. It is considered pathognomonic for an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear.
Question 945
Topic: Knee Sports
During reconstruction of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL), identifying the anatomic femoral insertion is critical. Radiographically, the Schöttle point is located:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior to the posterior cortical line, proximal to the Blumensaat line, and distal to the posterior condyle origin
Explanation
The Schöttle point marks the anatomic femoral origin of the MPFL. Radiographically, it is located just anterior to the posterior cortical line, proximal to the Blumensaat line, and just distal to the origin of the medial femoral condyle.
Question 946
Topic: Knee Sports
A patient presents with knee instability after a hyperextension injury. The dial test demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation of the tibia compared to the contralateral side at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetric rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. What is the most likely injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Isolated posterolateral corner injury
Explanation
The dial test evaluates the posterolateral corner (PLC) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). Increased external rotation at 30 degrees but not at 90 degrees indicates an isolated PLC injury. If increased rotation is present at both 30 and 90 degrees, it suggests a combined PCL and PLC injury.
Question 947
Topic: Knee Sports
A 14-year-old boy presents with vague, activity-related knee pain and mechanical symptoms. Radiographs suggest osteochondritis dissecans (OCD). Which of the following is the most common anatomic location for this lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
Explanation
The most common location for osteochondritis dissecans of the knee is the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle (accounting for about 70% of cases). It is thought to be caused by repetitive microtrauma, such as impingement from the tibial spine.
Question 948
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with persistent anterior shoulder pain. MRI confirms an isolated Type II SLAP tear. Based on current evidence, what is the recommended surgical management to optimize return to work and minimize persistent pain?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Biceps tenodesis
Explanation
In patients older than 40 years or manual laborers/workers' compensation patients, primary biceps tenodesis for a Type II SLAP tear yields superior clinical outcomes and lower reoperation rates compared to an arthroscopic SLAP repair.
Question 949
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset of right shoulder weakness. On examination, he has full active abduction and forward elevation, but profound weakness in external rotation with the arm at the side. Muscle atrophy is isolated to the infraspinatus fossa. Where is the most likely site of neurologic compression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus muscle, leading to isolated external rotation weakness. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.
Question 950
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old rugby player has a history of recurrent anterior glenohumeral dislocations. Advanced imaging demonstrates 26% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following procedures is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Latarjet procedure
Explanation
The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is indicated for patients with recurrent anterior instability and critical glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25%). Arthroscopic soft tissue repairs are prone to unacceptably high failure rates in this setting.
Question 951
Topic: Knee Sports
During a medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction for recurrent patellar instability, identifying the correct femoral attachment (Schöttle point) is crucial. Where is this point located anatomically?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. In the saddle between the adductor tubercle and the medial epicondyle
Explanation
The anatomic femoral origin of the MPFL is located in the saddle-shaped depression between the adductor tubercle proximally and the medial epicondyle distally. Non-anatomic graft placement is a leading cause of MPFL reconstruction failure.
Question 952
Topic: Knee Sports
A patient presents with lateral knee pain and instability after a hyperextension injury. The dial test shows 15 degrees of increased external rotation on the injured side at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees of knee flexion. What does this examination finding indicate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
Explanation
An increase in external rotation >10 degrees at 30 degrees of flexion but symmetric rotation at 90 degrees indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. Combined PCL and PLC injuries show increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.
Question 953
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 58-year-old laborer with pseudoparalysis of the shoulder is found to have a massive, irreparable tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus with an intact subscapularis and no glenohumeral arthritis. A superior capsular reconstruction (SCR) is planned. Between which two bony landmarks is the graft typically attached?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior glenoid and greater tuberosity
Explanation
Superior capsular reconstruction utilizes a dermal allograft or autograft anchored medially to the superior glenoid and laterally to the greater tuberosity. This restores the superior restraints of the glenohumeral joint, depressing the humeral head to improve kinematics.
Question 954
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 25-year-old overhead athlete presents with deep shoulder pain and clicking.
Diagnostic arthroscopy confirms a Type II SLAP lesion. What is the most widely accepted initial surgical management for this specific injury in this demographic if conservative measures fail?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic superior labral repair
Explanation
In young overhead athletes (<35 years old) with a Type II SLAP lesion, arthroscopic superior labral repair to the glenoid is the standard of care to restore normal shoulder kinematics. Biceps tenodesis is typically reserved for older patients or revision cases.
Question 955
Topic: Knee Sports
A 14-year-old boy presents with vague, poorly localized knee pain and intermittent swelling. Radiographs reveal an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion. In which of the following locations is this lesion most commonly found?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
Explanation
The classic and most common location for osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the knee is the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle (seen in over 70% of cases). This location can be visualized on a notch view radiograph.
Question 956
Topic: Knee Sports
The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is composed of two distinct functional bundles: the anteromedial (AM) bundle and the posterolateral (PL) bundle. Which of the following best describes their tensioning behavior during knee range of motion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The AM bundle is tightest in flexion, and the PL bundle is tightest in extension.
Explanation
The AM bundle of the ACL is tense in knee flexion and is the primary restraint to anterior tibial translation at 90 degrees. The PL bundle is tense in knee extension and provides significant rotatory stability.
Question 957
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 68-year-old male with a history of chronic renal failure falls directly onto a flexed knee. He is unable to perform a straight leg raise. Lateral radiographs demonstrate a high-riding patella (patella alta). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Patellar tendon rupture
Explanation
A high-riding patella (patella alta) on a lateral radiograph, combined with an inability to actively extend the knee, is pathognomonic for a patellar tendon rupture. Quadriceps tendon ruptures present with a low-riding patella (patella baja).
Question 958
Topic: Knee Sports
A 55-year-old male falls from a ladder, sustaining a bilateral C5-C6 facet dislocation with significant anterior translation. He presents with an ASIA C incomplete spinal cord injury. The provided image illustrates the complex anatomical relationships in the cervical spine during a dislocation event.
Considering the biomechanics of this injury, which of the following structures is most critically compromised, leading to the profound instability observed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior Ligamentous Complex (PLC)
Explanation
Correct Answer: EThe Posterior Ligamentous Complex (PLC) is the primary tension band of the cervical spine, comprising the ligamentum flavum, interspinous ligaments, supraspinous ligaments, and the facet joint capsules. In bilateral cervical facet dislocation, the severe hyperflexion and distraction forces cause complete, catastrophic disruption of the PLC. While the Anterior Longitudinal Ligament (ALL), Posterior Longitudinal Ligament (PLL), and Intervertebral Disc Annulus Fibrosus are also frequently compromised (often stripped or torn), the complete failure of the PLC is the hallmark of this injury, leading to the profound instability and anterior translation of the superior vertebral body. The Ligamentum Flavum (C) is a component of the PLC, but the entire complex's disruption is the most critical factor.
Question 959
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 58-year-old male sustains a high-energy fall, resulting in a Neer three-part fracture of the proximal humerus involving the surgical neck and greater tuberosity, with significant displacement of both fragments relative to the humeral head. He is otherwise healthy and has high functional demands. During surgical planning, the orthopedic surgeon is particularly concerned about the risk of avascular necrosis (AVN) of the humeral head. Which of the following anatomical structures is most critical for the primary blood supply to the humeral head and its disruption significantly increases the risk of AVN?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior circumflex humeral artery and its ascending branch (arcuate artery).
Explanation
Correct Answer: BThe case content explicitly states: 'The blood supply to the humeral head is predominantly from the ascending branch of the anterior circumflex humeral artery, forming the arcuate artery, which penetrates the head near the bicipital groove. The posterior circumflex humeral artery also contributes. Disruption of these vessels, particularly in multi-part fractures with significant displacement, is a major risk factor for AVN.'Option A (Posterior circumflex humeral artery):While the posterior circumflex humeral artery does contribute to the humeral head's blood supply, the anterior circumflex humeral artery and its ascending branch are described as the 'predominant' supply.Option C (Thoracoacromial artery):The thoracoacromial artery supplies the pectoralis major, deltoid, and clavicle, but not directly the humeral head.Option D (Suprascapular artery):The suprascapular artery supplies the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles and the shoulder joint, but is not the primary supply to the humeral head itself.Option E (Subscapular artery):The subscapular artery is a branch of the axillary artery that supplies the subscapularis, latissimus dorsi, and teres major muscles, but not the humeral head's primary vascularity.
Question 960
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 42-year-old male presents with a displaced greater tuberosity fracture of the proximal humerus after a snowboarding accident. Radiographs show the greater tuberosity fragment displaced superiorly by 8 mm. He is an active individual with high functional demands. During surgical planning for open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF), the surgeon considers the deforming forces acting on the fracture fragments. Which muscle is primarily responsible for the superior displacement of the greater tuberosity fragment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supraspinatus.
Explanation
Correct Answer: DThe case content, under 'Biomechanics - Deforming Forces,' explicitly states: 'Supraspinatus: Pulls the greater tuberosity superiorly and posteriorly.' The greater tuberosity is the insertion site for the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor tendons. Superior displacement is a classic sign of supraspinatus pull.Option A (Subscapularis):The subscapularis inserts into the lesser tuberosity and pulls it anteriorly and medially.Option B (Pectoralis major):The pectoralis major inserts more distally on the humerus and contributes to adduction and internal rotation of the shaft.Option C (Deltoid):The deltoid pulls the humeral shaft proximally and laterally.Option E (Latissimus dorsi):The latissimus dorsi inserts more distally on the humerus and contributes to adduction, extension, and internal rotation of the shaft.
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