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Question 881

Topic: Knee Sports

A 26-year-old male presents with persistent knee stiffness six months after an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. Radiographs reveal that the femoral tunnel was placed significantly anterior to the anatomic footprint. Which of the following clinical findings is most likely expected due to this malposition?

. Loss of terminal extension
. Loss of knee flexion
. Recurrent pivot shift
. Patellar tendon rupture
. Lateral meniscus tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of knee flexion


Explanation

Anterior placement of the femoral tunnel during ACL reconstruction results in a graft that becomes excessively tight in flexion. This biomechanical mismatch typically causes a loss of knee flexion and can eventually lead to graft stretching or failure.

Question 882

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 30-year-old recreational athlete sustains an acute ACL tear. Magnetic resonance imaging also demonstrates a complete radial tear of the posterior root of the medial meniscus. If left untreated, this meniscal injury leads to which of the following biomechanical alterations?

. Decreased contact area and increased peak contact pressure
. Increased contact area and decreased peak contact pressure
. Decreased anterior tibial translation
. Decreased tibiofemoral joint space narrowing
. Increased hoop stresses within the meniscus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased contact area and increased peak contact pressure


Explanation

A complete posterior root tear of the medial meniscus disrupts the circumferential hoop stresses, leading to meniscal extrusion. This results in biomechanical changes equivalent to a total meniscectomy, characterized by decreased contact area and significantly increased peak contact pressures.

Question 883

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 22-year-old female soccer player undergoes revision ACL reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone allograft. Which of the following allograft preparation methods is most strongly associated with an increased rate of structural graft failure?

. Fresh-freezing
. Ethylene oxide sterilization
. Irradiation with greater than 2.5 Mrad
. Cryopreservation with dimethyl sulfoxide
. Aseptic procurement without secondary sterilization

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Irradiation with greater than 2.5 Mrad


Explanation

High-dose terminal irradiation (greater than 2.0 to 2.5 Mrad) is used to sterilize allografts but significantly alters their structural properties. This leads to a dose-dependent decrease in biomechanical strength and a higher risk of clinical graft failure.

Question 884

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old skier sustains a twisting injury to his left knee. He reports hearing a 'pop' and experiencing immediate swelling. A radiograph of the knee is obtained.

What is the most likely associated ligamentous injury?

. Posterior cruciate ligament tear
. Anterior cruciate ligament tear
. Medial collateral ligament tear
. Lateral collateral ligament tear
. Posterolateral corner injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament tear


Explanation

The radiograph demonstrates a Segond fracture, which is an avulsion fracture of the anterolateral proximal tibia. This finding is highly pathognomonic for an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear and represents avulsion of the anterolateral complex.

Question 885

Topic: Knee Sports

A 34-year-old man presents with chronic knee instability. On physical examination, the dial test is performed in the prone position. He demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. At 90 degrees of knee flexion, the external rotation is symmetric bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Isolated anterior cruciate ligament tear
. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament tear
. Combined posterior cruciate ligament and posterolateral corner injury
. Isolated posterolateral corner injury
. Combined anterior cruciate ligament and posteromedial corner injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated posterolateral corner injury


Explanation

The dial test evaluates for posterolateral corner (PLC) and PCL injuries. Asymmetry of greater than 10 degrees at 30 degrees of flexion, which normalizes at 90 degrees, indicates an isolated PLC injury. Combined PLC and PCL injuries typically show increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.

Question 886

Topic: Knee Sports
A 19-year-old gymnast experiences a first-time lateral patellar dislocation. An MRI confirms a full-thickness tear of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL). When considering anatomical reconstruction, where is the femoral origin of the MPFL located?
. Anterior to the medial epicondyle
. Directly on the adductor tubercle
. Between the medial epicondyle and the adductor tubercle
. Posterior and distal to the medial epicondyle
. At the junction of the medial collateral ligament and medial epicondyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Between the medial epicondyle and the adductor tubercle


Explanation

The femoral origin of the MPFL is located in the saddle region between the medial epicondyle and the adductor tubercle. Radiographically, Schöttle's point is used to identify this anatomic location to ensure proper graft isometry during reconstruction.

Question 887

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

An 11-year-old male (Tanner stage 1) sustains a midsubstance ACL rupture while playing football. He has significant subjective instability with activities of daily living. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Nonoperative management with bracing until skeletal maturity
. Transphyseal bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft reconstruction
. Transphyseal hamstring autograft reconstruction
. Iliotibial band physeal-sparing extra-articular reconstruction
. Primary repair of the ACL midsubstance tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliotibial band physeal-sparing extra-articular reconstruction


Explanation

In prepubescent patients (Tanner stage 1 or 2) with significant growth remaining, physeal-sparing ACL reconstruction techniques, such as an iliotibial band extra-articular tenodesis, are recommended. Transphyseal techniques carry an unacceptable risk of iatrogenic growth arrest or angular deformity in this age group.

Question 888

Topic: Knee Sports

A surgeon is performing an isolated single-bundle posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction to address chronic posterior knee instability. Which functional bundle is being reconstructed, and in what position of knee flexion is this native bundle under the most tension?

. Anterolateral bundle; knee extension
. Anterolateral bundle; knee flexion
. Posteromedial bundle; knee extension
. Posteromedial bundle; knee flexion
. Meniscofemoral bundle; knee extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterolateral bundle; knee flexion


Explanation

The anterolateral bundle is the larger and biomechanically dominant bundle of the PCL, and it is tightest in knee flexion. Single-bundle PCL reconstructions aim to recreate this anterolateral bundle to restore the primary restraint against posterior tibial translation.

Question 889

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 21-year-old collegiate basketball player is undergoing primary ACL reconstruction. The surgeon is deciding between a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft and a quadrupled hamstring autograft. Which of the following post-operative complications is significantly more common with a BTB autograft compared to a hamstring autograft?

. Deep postoperative infection
. Anterior knee pain and kneeling discomfort
. Loss of deep knee flexion strength
. Saphenous nerve injury
. Delayed graft incorporation into the bone tunnels

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior knee pain and kneeling discomfort


Explanation

Bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autografts are associated with a higher incidence of donor site morbidity, specifically anterior knee pain and pain with kneeling, compared to hamstring autografts. Hamstring grafts are more associated with temporary deep flexion weakness and saphenous nerve paresthesias.

Question 890

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The detailed neurological examination of the newborn in the case revealed absent spontaneous movement for shoulder abduction/external rotation and elbow flexion, but present elbow extension and full spontaneous movement of fingers and thumb. Sensory examination showed intact withdrawal reflex in the hand but absent withdrawal in the lateral upper arm. This pattern of motor and sensory deficit is most indicative of involvement of which specific nerve roots?

. C7-C8
. C8-T1
. C5-C6
. C6-C7
. T1 only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5-C6


Explanation

Correct Answer: CThis question directly assesses knowledge of dermatomal and myotomal innervation. The key deficits described are:Absent shoulder abduction/external rotation:Primarily C5-C6 (deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor).Absent elbow flexion:Primarily C5-C6 (biceps, brachialis).Present elbow extension:Primarily C7-C8 (triceps), suggesting sparing of these roots.Full spontaneous movement of fingers and thumb:Primarily C8-T1, suggesting sparing of these roots.Absent withdrawal to noxious stimuli in the lateral upper arm:This corresponds to the C5-C6 dermatome.Intact withdrawal reflex in the hand:This corresponds to the C8-T1 dermatome.Combining these findings, the pattern of weakness and sensory loss is precisely localized to the C5 and C6 nerve roots, characteristic of an Erb-Duchenne palsy.

Question 891

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old male develops sudden, severe right shoulder pain that wakes him at night. Two weeks later, the pain subsides, but he notices profound weakness in shoulder abduction and external rotation. MRI of the shoulder is unremarkable. EMG shows active denervation in the supraspinatus and infraspinatus without radicular findings. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Cervical radiculopathy
. Quadrilateral space syndrome
. Brachial neuritis (Parsonage-Turner syndrome)
. Suprascapular nerve entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch
. Pancoast tumor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Brachial neuritis (Parsonage-Turner syndrome)


Explanation

Parsonage-Turner syndrome typically presents with an acute onset of severe shoulder pain followed by patchy weakness and amyotrophy as the pain resolves. EMG confirms acute denervation without structural compression, differentiating it from a compressive neuropathy or radiculopathy.

Question 892

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 26-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness. Examination shows atrophy isolated to the infraspinatus fossa, with normal supraspinatus bulk and strength. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Where is the most likely location of the nerve compression?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Supraclavicular fossa

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch by a paralabral cyst results in isolated infraspinatus atrophy and weakness in external rotation.

Question 893

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle with normal bulk and strength of the supraspinatus. Where is the most likely location of the nerve compression?

. Suprascapular notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Spiral groove
. Cubital tunnel

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the motor branch to the infraspinatus, leading to isolated infraspinatus weakness and atrophy. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 894

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 22-year-old female soccer player is scheduled for anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a hamstring autograft. Compared to a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft, the hamstring autograft is associated with a higher incidence of which of the following?

. Anterior knee pain
. Patellar fracture
. Postoperative stiffness
. Isokinetic knee flexion strength deficit
. Increased rate of contralateral ACL tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isokinetic knee flexion strength deficit


Explanation

Hamstring autografts for ACL reconstruction lead to a postoperative deficit in isokinetic knee flexion strength and internal rotation strength compared to BPTB autografts. However, hamstring grafts are associated with a significantly lower incidence of donor site morbidity and anterior knee pain.

Question 895

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 20-year-old male sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation during a rugby match. A subsequent MRI arthrogram reveals an avulsion of the anterior-inferior glenoid labrum with the attached inferior glenohumeral ligament complex. What is the specific eponym for this lesion?

. SLAP tear
. Hill-Sachs lesion
. ALPSA lesion
. Bankart lesion
. HAGL lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bankart lesion


Explanation

A Bankart lesion is a detachment of the anterior-inferior labrum and inferior glenohumeral ligament from the glenoid rim. It is the essential, most common pathologic lesion causing recurrent anterior shoulder instability.

Question 896

Topic: Knee Sports

A 26-year-old female presents after a twisting injury to her knee during a soccer match. Radiographs demonstrate an avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau (Segond fracture). Which of the following structures is most likely injured?

. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Popliteofibular ligament
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL)
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and Anterolateral ligament (ALL)
. Medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and Anterolateral ligament (ALL)


Explanation

A Segond fracture is an avulsion of the anterolateral capsule and the anterolateral ligament (ALL), and it is considered highly pathognomonic for an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear.

Question 897

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 35-year-old professional soccer player sustains an acute Achilles tendon rupture with a palpable gap of 2.5 cm. He desires the quickest and most reliable return to high-level sport. He has no significant medical comorbidities. Based on the provided case, which treatment approach is most strongly indicated for this patient?

. Non-operative management with prolonged immobilization to ensure maximal healing.
. Non-operative management with an accelerated rehabilitation protocol to minimize surgical risks.
. Open surgical repair with early functional rehabilitation to maximize strength and reduce rerupture risk.
. Percutaneous repair to achieve a cosmetic outcome, followed by delayed weight-bearing.
. Delayed surgical repair after 6 weeks to allow for natural scar tissue formation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open surgical repair with early functional rehabilitation to maximize strength and reduce rerupture risk.


Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe case clearly outlines operative indications: 'Young, active individuals: Especially athletes or those with high functional demands,' and 'Large tendon gap (>1 cm) on clinical examination or imaging.' The patient's profile (35-year-old professional soccer player, 2.5 cm gap, desire for quick and reliable return to high-level sport, no comorbidities) perfectly matches these indications. The case also emphasizes that 'Operative management is generally favored for patients seeking to maximize strength and power, aiming for a faster return to high-level athletic activity.' Furthermore, 'early functional rehabilitation' is consistently recommended post-operatively for optimal outcomes.Incorrect Options:A:Prolonged immobilization is outdated and associated with increased stiffness and atrophy, not suitable for an athlete seeking a quick return.B:While non-operative management has its place, for a high-level athlete with a large gap, operative repair is generally preferred for potentially better strength outcomes and lower rerupture rates, as discussed in the 'Summary of Key Literature.'D:While percutaneous repair offers cosmetic benefits, the primary goal for this patient is maximal strength and reliable return to sport. Open repair allows for direct visualization and a more robust repair, which is often preferred for high-demand athletes, especially with a larger gap. Delayed weight-bearing is also contrary to modern accelerated rehab protocols.E:Delayed surgical repair is indicated for chronic ruptures, not an acute presentation in a high-demand athlete.

Question 898

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A Vancouver B1 periprosthetic femur fracture is being managed surgically. The surgeon contemplates the use of a locking plate alone versus a locking plate augmented with a cortical strut allograft. Biomechanically, what is the primary advantage of adding a cortical strut allograft in this specific scenario?

. It induces rapid osteoinduction through bone morphogenetic proteins
. It acts as a medial buttress to prevent varus collapse
. It provides increased mechanical strength and fatigue resistance to the construct
. It prevents stress shielding of the proximal femur
. It significantly decreases the operative time and blood loss

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It provides increased mechanical strength and fatigue resistance to the construct


Explanation

Vancouver B1 fractures involve a fracture around a well-fixed stem. Augmenting a lateral locking plate with a cortical strut allograft significantly increases the overall biomechanical strength and fatigue resistance of the construct, lowering the risk of plate failure prior to bony union.

Question 899

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 45-year-old recreational athlete sustains an acute closed Achilles tendon rupture. When comparing operative repair to functional rehabilitation (non-operative management), which of the following statements is most accurate based on current high-level evidence?

. Operative repair has a lower re-rupture rate but a higher risk of soft-tissue complications.
. Functional rehabilitation has a higher risk of deep vein thrombosis than operative repair.
. Operative repair results in significantly superior plantarflexion strength at 5 years.
. Non-operative management requires 12 weeks of strict immobilization in equinus.
. There is no difference in the rate of soft-tissue complications between the two groups.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Operative repair has a lower re-rupture rate but a higher risk of soft-tissue complications.


Explanation

Recent randomized controlled trials show that while operative repair slightly reduces the re-rupture rate, it significantly increases the risk of wound complications and infection compared to early functional rehabilitation protocols.

Question 900

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Following the initial AP shoulder X-ray showing proximal humeral migration and subacromial narrowing, the candidate requests an axillary view. What specific finding is the candidate MOST likely looking for on the axillary view in this clinical context?

. Glenohumeral joint space narrowing.
. Acromioclavicular joint osteophytes.
. Anterior or posterior subluxation of the humeral head.
. Presence of Hill-Sachs lesion.
. Scapular notching.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior or posterior subluxation of the humeral head.


Explanation

Correct Answer: CIn the context of suspected rotator cuff tear arthropathy (RCAT) with proximal migration seen on the AP view, an axillary view is crucial to assess for anteroposterior stability and subluxation of the humeral head relative to the glenoid. Specifically, anterior subluxation of the humeral head is a common finding in RCAT, often associated with a deficient subscapularis tendon, as noted by the second candidate in the case. Glenohumeral joint space narrowing (Option A) is better assessed on the AP view for superior migration, and while it can be seen, subluxation is more specific to cuff deficiency. AC joint osteophytes (Option B) are relevant for AC joint pathology, not directly for RCAT diagnosis. A Hill-Sachs lesion (Option D) is associated with anterior shoulder instability (dislocation), not typically RCAT. Scapular notching (Option E) is a complication seen after reverse shoulder arthroplasty, not a diagnostic feature on pre-operative plain radiographs for RCAT.