This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 5. Sports Medicine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 841
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 19-year-old female gymnast complains of bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of her shoulders "slipping." Examination demonstrates a positive sulcus sign and a positive apprehension test bilaterally, without a discrete history of trauma. Initial management should primarily consist of:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Scapular stabilization and rotator cuff strengthening
Explanation
The patient has multidirectional instability (MDI), characterized by generalized ligamentous laxity and atraumatic instability. The mainstay of initial treatment is a prolonged course of physical therapy focusing on periscapular and rotator cuff strengthening.
Question 842
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Six months after an uncomplicated anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction with a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft, a 22-year-old athlete complains of an inability to achieve full terminal extension. MRI reveals a nodular mass anterior to the ACL graft in the intercondylar notch. What is the most likely etiology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior placement of the tibial tunnel
Explanation
A "cyclops lesion" (localized anterior arthrofibrosis) often presents as an extension deficit. Anterior placement of the tibial tunnel can lead to roof impingement and subsequent formation of this fibrovascular nodule.
Question 843
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old rugby player undergoes arthroscopic Bankart repair for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Intraoperatively, an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion is identified with a glenoid bone loss of 10%. Which of the following adjunct procedures is most appropriate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic remplissage
Explanation
An engaging Hill-Sachs lesion with subcritical glenoid bone loss (<20-25%) is an indication for an arthroscopic remplissage combined with an anterior Bankart repair. This involves infraspinatus tenodesis and posterior capsulodesis into the humeral defect.
Question 844
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
An obese 12-year-old boy presents with right groin pain and an obligate external rotation of the hip during passive flexion. He is diagnosed with a stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Which complication is most closely associated with the natural history of the altered anatomy if left untreated?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Femoroacetabular impingement
Explanation
The metaphyseal prominence resulting from the slipped epiphysis creates a cam lesion, leading to anterior femoroacetabular impingement. While AVN and chondrolysis are common complications of severe slips or treatment, FAI is the most common sequela of the altered bony morphology.
Question 845
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 19-year-old female swimmer presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of her shoulders slipping out of place. Examination reveals a positive sulcus sign bilaterally, apprehension and relocation tests, and generalized ligamentous laxity. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Physical therapy emphasizing periscapular and rotator cuff strengthening
Explanation
Multidirectional instability (MDI) is typically atraumatic and characterized by generalized ligamentous laxity. The cornerstone of initial management is an extended, structured course of physical therapy focusing on the dynamic stabilizers and periscapular musculature.
Question 846
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 45-year-old recreational athlete sustains an acute Achilles tendon rupture and elects for non-operative management. Compared to operative repair, which of the following outcomes is most statistically associated with non-operative management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Higher rate of re-rupture
Explanation
Non-operative management of Achilles tendon ruptures carries a slightly higher risk of re-rupture compared to surgical repair, although modern early functional rehabilitation protocols are narrowing this gap. Operative repair has a higher risk of wound complications and iatrogenic nerve injury.
Question 847
Topic: Knee Sports
A 25-year-old male undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. Postoperatively, he lacks full knee flexion but easily achieves full extension. The surgeon suspects malpositioning of the femoral tunnel. Where was the femoral tunnel most likely placed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Too anterior
Explanation
An anteriorly placed femoral tunnel during ACL reconstruction results in a graft that is tight in flexion and loose in extension, leading to a loss of knee flexion. Conversely, a posterior femoral tunnel leads to a graft that is tight in extension.
Question 848
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 24-year-old male ultimate frisbee player presents with a reinjury of his previously reconstructed left knee. He explains that 4 years ago he ruptured his ACL playing basketball and had an allograft repair followed by an uneventful recovery. He returned to sports 8 months after surgery. Radiographs are shown below.
Which factor is most strongly associated with his graft failure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Graft type (allograft)
Explanation
Correct Answer: CIn younger, active individuals, allograft ACL reconstructions have been consistently shown to have a significantly higher failure rate compared to autograft reconstructions. While inadequate fixation and tunnel malposition (femoral or tibial) are common causes of graft failure, the choice of allograft in a young, high-demand athlete is a major contributing factor to reinjury. Meniscal pathology, while impacting long-term knee health, is not directly associated with the primary cause of graft re-tear.
Question 849
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 24-year-old male ultimate frisbee player requires a revision ACL reconstruction. In choosing between a single-stage ACL revision and a two-step, staged ACL revision (removal of hardware with bone grafting, followed by later revision ACL reconstruction), which finding most strongly favors a staged revision?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Significant tunnel widening
Explanation
Correct Answer: AA staged revision is primarily indicated when the existing tunnels from the previous ACL reconstruction are too wide, preventing reliable graft fixation, or if their position significantly compromises the accurate placement of new tunnels for the revision ACL. In such cases, the initial stage involves removing hardware and bone grafting the tunnels to allow for healing and consolidation, followed by the definitive revision reconstruction at a later date. A vertical femoral tunnel can often be addressed in a single stage by creating a new, anatomically correct tunnel. Retained hardware can typically be removed during a single-stage procedure. The type of prior graft (autograft vs. allograft) or the presence of a meniscal tear does not inherently necessitate a staged approach.
Question 850
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
During a revision ACL reconstruction, the graft impinges in the notch as the knee is extended, making terminal extension 5 degrees short of straight. Which factor is most likely responsible for this limitation in range of motion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tibial tunnel too anterior
Explanation
Correct Answer: CGraft impingement in the intercondylar notch, leading to a loss of terminal knee extension, is most commonly caused by an anteriorly placed tibial tunnel. If the tibial tunnel is too anterior, the graft will be taut and impinge against the roof of the intercondylar notch during knee extension. Femoral tunnel position primarily affects rotational stability and anterior translation, not typically terminal extension impingement. A tibial tunnel that is too posterior would lead to graft laxity rather than impingement. The type of graft (autograft or allograft) does not inherently affect the risk of impingement based on tunnel placement.
Question 851
Topic: Knee Sports
A 27-year-old soccer player sustains a PCL injury after falling onto a flexed knee. On examination, there is a slight sag and posterior translation of the tibia less than one centimeter. The initial management of this isolated PCL injury should primarily emphasize:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Quadriceps strengthening
Explanation
Correct Answer: DFor isolated PCL injuries, especially those with minimal posterior translation, non-operative management is often successful. The primary focus of rehabilitation is quadriceps strengthening. The quadriceps muscle provides an anteriorly directed force on the tibia, which can dynamically stabilize the knee and counteract the posterior laxity caused by the PCL injury. Hamstring strengthening, while important for overall knee health, can exacerbate posterior translation. Strict immobilization can lead to stiffness and atrophy. Open chain exercises may place undue stress on the PCL. Surgical reconstruction is typically reserved for higher-grade PCL injuries or combined ligamentous injuries.
Question 852
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
During a preparticipation physical examination for a 12-year-old girl interested in soccer, which of the following historical findings would be considered LEAST worrisome for sports participation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Healed long-bone fracture
Explanation
Correct Answer: BThe primary goal of a preparticipation physical examination is to identify life-threatening conditions or conditions that may predispose an athlete to injury or illness during sports. A history of Long QT syndrome, exertional shortness of breath (suggesting asthma or cardiac issues), missed or absent menses (a component of the female athlete triad, indicating potential bone health issues), and prior heat stroke (indicating susceptibility to heat illness) are all significant red flags that require further evaluation before sports participation. A healed long-bone fracture, while important to review for any residual deficits, is generally the least worrisome of the options, assuming it has healed without complications and full function has been restored.
Question 853
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 16-year-old male athlete collapses during a basketball game and is diagnosed with sudden cardiac death. What is the most common underlying cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Explanation
Correct Answer: DHypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes. It is an inherited condition characterized by abnormal thickening of the heart muscle, particularly the left ventricle, which can obstruct blood flow and lead to dangerous arrhythmias during physical exertion. While coronary artery abnormalities, Long QT syndrome, Commotio cordis (a blunt chest trauma causing ventricular fibrillation), and Marfan syndrome (which can lead to aortic dissection) are all causes of sudden cardiac death in athletes, HCM accounts for the largest proportion of these tragic events.
Question 854
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A patient undergoes a Zone II flexor tendon repair. Six weeks postoperatively, during a hand therapy session, the patient attempts to make a fist. The repaired middle finger achieves full flexion, but the adjacent ring and small fingers are unable to achieve full flexion, appearing to be 'blocked' by the middle finger. What is the most likely cause of this phenomenon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Quadrigia effect, due to over-advancement of the FDP tendon during repair.
Explanation
Correct Answer: DThe scenario described, where the repaired middle finger achieves full flexion but the adjacent, uninjured ring and small fingers are unable to achieve full flexion, is the classic presentation of the Quadrigia effect. As explained in the case, 'The Flexor Digitorum Profundus muscle has a common muscle belly in the proximal forearm that gives rise to the tendons of the middle, ring, and small fingers. Because these tendons act in concert, over-advancing the FDP tendon during repair (typically by more than 1 cm) will artificially shorten that specific tendon. When the patient attempts to make a fist, the shortened repaired tendon reaches maximum excursion early, physically blocking the common muscle belly from contracting further. This prevents the adjacent, uninjured fingers from achieving full flexion.'Option A is incorrect; Lumbrical Plus finger presents as paradoxical PIP extension when attempting to grip, not a blocking of adjacent fingers. Option B is incorrect; tendon adhesions would primarily limit active flexion of therepairedfinger, not block adjacent uninjured fingers. Option C is incorrect; a tendon rupture would result in a loss of active flexion in the repaired finger, not a blocking effect on adjacent digits. Option E is incorrect; intrinsic muscle contracture would typically affect MCP flexion and IP extension, not specifically block adjacent FDP function in this manner.
Question 855
Topic: Knee Sports
A 28-year-old male presents with persistent loss of terminal extension six months after an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. Lateral radiographs reveal that the entire tibial tunnel is positioned entirely anterior to Blumensaat's line when the knee is in full extension. Which of the following complications is most likely causing his loss of motion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Roof impingement
Explanation
Anterior placement of the tibial tunnel leads to graft impingement against the intercondylar roof (Blumensaat's line) during terminal extension. This biomechanical conflict typically presents as a significant loss of extension and potential graft attrition.
Question 856
Topic: Knee Sports
A patient complains of severe knee stiffness and an inability to flex the knee past 80 degrees following an ACL reconstruction. Intraoperative notes and postoperative imaging confirm that the femoral tunnel was drilled significantly anterior (high) to the anatomic footprint. What is the kinematic consequence of this technical error?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The graft tightens excessively in deep flexion
Explanation
A femoral tunnel placed too anteriorly (non-anatomic) results in the graft tightening significantly as the knee flexes. This "captures" the joint and severely limits knee flexion, often requiring revision surgery if conservative management fails.
Question 857
Topic: Knee Sports
The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is the primary restraint to posterior tibial translation and is composed of two distinct functional bundles. Which of the following best describes their biomechanical behavior during knee motion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The anterolateral bundle is tightest in flexion and lax in extension
Explanation
The PCL consists of the larger anterolateral (AL) bundle and the smaller posteromedial (PM) bundle. The AL bundle is tight in flexion, whereas the PM bundle is tight in extension.
Question 858
Topic: Knee Sports
A 25-year-old athlete sustains a twisting injury to the knee. On physical examination, the dial test demonstrates a 15-degree increase in external rotation compared to the uninjured contralateral knee at 30 degrees of flexion. At 90 degrees of flexion, the external rotation is symmetric bilaterally. What is the most likely injury pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Isolated Posterolateral Corner (PLC) injury
Explanation
An increase in external rotation greater than 10 degrees at 30 degrees of flexion, with symmetric rotation at 90 degrees, indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. If rotation is increased at both 30 and 90 degrees, a combined PLC and PCL injury is present.
Question 859
Topic: Knee Sports
Which bundle of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is tightest in deep knee flexion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterolateral bundle
Explanation
The PCL consists of the anterolateral (AL) and posteromedial (PM) bundles. The larger AL bundle is tightest in knee flexion, whereas the smaller PM bundle is tightest in knee extension.
Question 860
Topic: Knee Sports
A patient presents with a knee injury. The dial test shows 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side, but symmetric rotation at 90 degrees. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Isolated posterolateral corner injury
Explanation
An increase in external rotation of more than 10 degrees at 30 degrees of flexion, but not at 90 degrees, indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. Increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees indicates a combined PLC and PCL injury.
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