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Question 7161

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate offensive lineman presents with recurrent posterior shoulder instability. He has not had any frank dislocations but experiences a "clunking" sensation when pass blocking. Physical examination reveals a positive Jerk test. Radiographs and MRI show no significant bone loss or labral tearing. He wishes to pursue nonoperative management. A physical therapy program should primarily focus on strengthening which of the following muscle groups to provide dynamic stability against posterior humeral head translation?

. Subscapularis and pectoralis major
. Infraspinatus and teres minor
. Supraspinatus and biceps brachii
. Serratus anterior and trapezius
. Latissimus dorsi and teres major

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Infraspinatus and teres minor


Explanation

Correct Answer: Infraspinatus and teres minorConservative management of recurrent unidirectional posterior shoulder instability heavily emphasizes strengthening the dynamic posterior stabilizers of the glenohumeral joint. The primary muscles responsible for resisting posterior translation of the humeral head are the infraspinatus, teres minor, and the posterior head of the deltoid. Strengthening the anterior structures (such as the subscapularis and pectoralis major) can actually exacerbate posterior instability by creating an imbalance that pulls the humeral head posteriorly.

Question 7162

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old weightlifter presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. He has a history of recurrent posterior shoulder subluxations. Physical examination demonstrates atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa but normal bulk of the supraspinatus. MRI reveals a posterior labral tear with an associated paralabral cyst. At which of the following anatomic locations is the cyst most likely compressing the affected nerve?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Spiral groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

Correct Answer: Spinoglenoid notchPosterior labral tears can allow synovial fluid to leak and form paralabral cysts. These cysts frequently extend into the spinoglenoid notch. The suprascapular nerve passes through the suprascapular notch (innervating the supraspinatus) and then travels through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch results in isolated infraspinatus weakness and atrophy, while sparing the supraspinatus. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both muscles. The quadrilateral space contains the axillary nerve, which innervates the deltoid and teres minor.

Question 7163

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old man presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation following an electrocution injury 3 weeks ago. A CT scan demonstrates an anteromedial humeral head impaction fracture (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 25% of the articular surface. The glenoid is intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Closed reduction and sling immobilization
. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Open reduction and transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect
. Open reduction and structural allograft reconstruction of the glenoid
. Total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect


Explanation

Correct Answer: Open reduction and transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defectA reverse Hill-Sachs lesion is an anteromedial impaction fracture of the humeral head caused by the posterior glenoid rim during a posterior dislocation. The treatment depends on the size of the defect. Defects less than 20% can often be managed nonoperatively or with simple reduction if stable. Defects between 20% and 40% are at high risk for engaging the posterior glenoid and causing recurrent instability. These are best treated with a McLaughlin procedure (transfer of the subscapularis tendon into the defect) or a modified McLaughlin procedure (transfer of the lesser tuberosity with the attached subscapularis into the defect). Defects greater than 40-50% typically require hemiarthroplasty or total shoulder arthroplasty.

Question 7164

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A surgeon is performing an open posterior approach to the shoulder for a posterior bone block procedure to address recurrent posterior instability. After incising the deltoid in line with its fibers, an internervous plane is utilized to access the posterior joint capsule. This plane is located between which of the following two muscles?

. Infraspinatus and teres minor
. Teres minor and teres major
. Supraspinatus and infraspinatus
. Deltoid and triceps
. Infraspinatus and subscapularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Infraspinatus and teres minor


Explanation

Correct Answer: Infraspinatus and teres minorThe classic open posterior approach to the shoulder utilizes the internervous plane between the infraspinatus (innervated by the suprascapular nerve) and the teres minor (innervated by the axillary nerve). This plane allows safe access to the posterior capsule and glenoid. Care must be taken not to extend the dissection too far inferiorly to avoid injury to the axillary nerve as it exits the quadrilateral space just inferior to the teres minor.

Question 7165

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 20-year-old female gymnast presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a feeling of her shoulders "slipping out of place." She can voluntarily subluxate her shoulders posteriorly. Physical exam reveals a positive sulcus sign of 3 cm bilaterally that does not reduce with external rotation. She has generalized ligamentous laxity with a Beighton score of 7/9. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient's posterior instability?

. Arthroscopic posterior capsulolabral repair
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Aggressive physical therapy focusing on periscapular and rotator cuff strengthening
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy
. Posterior bone block procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aggressive physical therapy focusing on periscapular and rotator cuff strengthening


Explanation

Correct Answer: Aggressive physical therapy focusing on periscapular and rotator cuff strengtheningThis patient presents with multidirectional instability (MDI), characterized by generalized laxity, voluntary subluxation, and a positive sulcus sign that persists in external rotation (indicating rotator interval incompetence). The hallmark of MDI treatment is a prolonged, dedicated course of physical therapy (typically at least 6 months) focusing on strengthening the dynamic stabilizers, specifically the rotator cuff and periscapular muscles. Operative intervention (such as an inferior capsular shift) is strictly reserved for patients who fail extensive conservative management, and voluntary dislocators often have poor surgical outcomes.

Question 7166

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old electrician presents to the emergency department after sustaining a high-voltage electrical shock. His right arm is locked in internal rotation and he resists any external rotation. A CT scan confirms a posterior shoulder dislocation. The classic bony defect associated with this injury is located on which aspect of the humerus?

. Anteromedial humeral head
. Anterolateral humeral head
. Posteromedial humeral head
. Posterolateral humeral head
. Superior humeral head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anteromedial humeral head


Explanation

A reverse Hill-Sachs lesion is an impaction fracture located on the anteromedial aspect of the humeral head. It occurs when the anteromedial humeral head impacts the posterior glenoid rim during a posterior dislocation.

Question 7167

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During a physical examination for suspected posterior shoulder instability, the examiner performs the Jerk test. The patient is seated, and the arm is placed in 90 degrees of forward flexion and internal rotation. While applying an axial load to the humerus, the examiner moves the arm in which of the following directions to elicit a clunk?

. Horizontal adduction
. Horizontal abduction
. Vertical extension
. External rotation
. Vertical flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Horizontal adduction


Explanation

The Jerk test is performed by placing the arm in 90 degrees of forward flexion and internal rotation, applying an axial load, and moving the arm into horizontal adduction. A sudden clunk indicates posterior subluxation of the humeral head off the glenoid.

Question 7168

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 42-year-old male presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation following a seizure 3 weeks ago. Imaging reveals a reverse Hill-Sachs defect that involves 30% of the articular surface. He is highly active and wishes to retain his native joint. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect
. Latarjet procedure
. Total shoulder arthroplasty
. Arthroscopic remplissage

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect


Explanation

For reverse Hill-Sachs lesions involving 20-40% of the articular surface, a modified McLaughlin procedure (transfer of the lesser tuberosity with the attached subscapularis) is indicated. This provides a bone-to-bone healing surface and mechanically prevents the defect from engaging the posterior glenoid.

Question 7169

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain that affects his performance. He denies any frank instability. During which phase of the throwing motion is posterior shoulder instability and capsular stress most commonly symptomatic?

. Wind-up
. Early cocking
. Late cocking
. Acceleration
. Deceleration

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deceleration


Explanation

Posterior shoulder instability in throwing athletes typically manifests during the deceleration and follow-through phases. During this phase, extreme compressive and distractive forces are placed on the posterior capsule and labrum to slow the arm down.

Question 7170

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

During diagnostic arthroscopy for chronic posterior shoulder pain in a contact athlete, the surgeon identifies a 'Kim lesion'. Which of the following best describes this pathoanatomic finding?

. A complete avulsion of the posterior labrum with detached periosteum
. A concealed, incomplete avulsion of the posteroinferior labrum with intact articular cartilage
. A chondral defect on the posterior glenoid vault
. An avulsion fracture of the posterior glenoid rim
. A degenerative tear of the posterior band of the IGHL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A concealed, incomplete avulsion of the posteroinferior labrum with intact articular cartilage


Explanation

A Kim lesion is an incomplete, concealed avulsion of the posteroinferior labrum where the superficial articular cartilage and periosteum remain intact. It results in loss of normal posteroinferior labral height and retroactive capsular laxity.

Question 7171

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 27-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent posterior shoulder instability. Advanced imaging reveals a posterior glenoid bone loss of 25%. Soft tissue structures are relatively preserved. What is the most appropriate surgical management to prevent recurrent instability?

. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair with capsular shift
. Subscapularis tendon transfer
. Posterior bone block augmentation (e.g., iliac crest)
. Latarjet procedure
. Total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior bone block augmentation (e.g., iliac crest)


Explanation

In the setting of posterior glenoid bone loss exceeding 15-20%, soft tissue repairs alone have an unacceptably high failure rate. A posterior bone block augmentation (using iliac crest or distal tibia allograft) is indicated to restore the articular arc.

Question 7172

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

On a standard AP radiograph of a patient with a suspected posterior dislocation, a dense vertical line is noted on the medial aspect of the humeral head. This 'trough line' represents which of the following pathologic findings?

. A fracture of the posterior glenoid rim
. An impaction fracture of the anteromedial humeral head
. A calcified posterior labrum
. An avulsion of the lesser tuberosity
. A vertical split in the subscapularis tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. An impaction fracture of the anteromedial humeral head


Explanation

The 'trough line' is a dense vertical line seen on an AP radiograph corresponding to the reverse Hill-Sachs lesion. It represents the cortical impaction fracture on the anteromedial aspect of the humeral head as it wedges against the posterior glenoid.

Question 7173

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The classic (original) McLaughlin procedure, utilized for the treatment of moderate-sized anteromedial humeral head defects, involves the transfer of which of the following structures into the bony defect?

. Infraspinatus tendon
. Subscapularis tendon
. Lesser tuberosity
. Coracoid process
. Long head of the biceps tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis tendon


Explanation

The classic McLaughlin procedure involves detaching the subscapularis tendon and transferring it into the anteromedial humeral head defect. The modified McLaughlin improves upon this by transferring the lesser tuberosity with the attached tendon to achieve bone-to-bone healing.

Question 7174

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

During standard shoulder arthroscopy for a posterior labral tear, the surgeon is establishing the standard posterior viewing portal. What are the correct anatomic landmarks for placing this portal?

. 2 cm inferior and 1 cm medial to the posterolateral corner of the acromion
. 1 cm anterior and 1 cm lateral to the acromioclavicular joint
. Just lateral to the coracoid process
. 5 cm distal to the lateral edge of the acromion
. In the soft spot between the clavicle and the scapular spine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2 cm inferior and 1 cm medial to the posterolateral corner of the acromion


Explanation

The standard posterior portal is established in the 'soft spot' located approximately 2 cm inferior and 1 cm medial to the posterolateral corner of the acromion. This provides an optimal trajectory into the glenohumeral joint.

Question 7175

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old weightlifter presents with posterior shoulder instability. MRI reveals a POLPSA lesion. Which of the following accurately describes the pathology of a POLPSA lesion?
. A purely cartilaginous defect of the posterior glenoid
. An avulsion of the posterior labrum with an intact periosteal sleeve
. A posterior labral tear combined with a SLAP tear
. An impaction fracture of the posterior humeral head
. A complete rupture of the posterior capsule from the humeral insertion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. An avulsion of the posterior labrum with an intact periosteal sleeve


Explanation

POLPSA stands for Posterior Labrocapsular Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion. It is characterized by the posterior labrum being avulsed from the glenoid rim along with an intact sleeve of periosteum, leading to a redundant posterior recess.

Question 7176

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 21-year-old collegiate swimmer with recurrent posterior subluxations has failed 6 months of targeted physical therapy. Diagnostic arthroscopy reveals a severely patulous posterior capsule but a completely intact and well-fixed posterior labrum. What is the most appropriate arthroscopic surgical step?

. Arthroscopic anterior capsular shift
. Arthroscopic posterior capsular plication
. Remplissage procedure
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic posterior capsular plication


Explanation

In patients with a patulous posterior capsule and an intact labrum, arthroscopic posterior capsular plication (often utilizing suture anchors or capsule-to-capsule sutures) is the procedure of choice to reduce capsular volume and restore stability.

Question 7177

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Bilateral posterior shoulder dislocations are a rare clinical entity but are highly specific to a particular mechanism of injury. Which of the following etiologies is most classically associated with simultaneous bilateral posterior dislocations?

. Direct blow to the anterior shoulders
. Motor vehicle collision holding a steering wheel
. Violent seizures or electrocution
. Fall on bilaterally outstretched hands
. Heavy weightlifting (e.g., bench press)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Violent seizures or electrocution


Explanation

Bilateral posterior shoulder dislocations are classically caused by violent muscle contractions, such as those occurring during generalized seizures or electrocution. The strong internal rotators (latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major, subscapularis) overpower the weaker external rotators.

Question 7178

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 32-year-old male sustains a locked posterior shoulder dislocation during a seizure. CT imaging reveals an anteromedial humeral head impaction fracture involving 35% of the articular surface. The glenoid is completely intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Closed reduction and spica cast immobilization
. Arthroscopic posterior capsulolabral repair
. Transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect
. Shoulder hemiarthroplasty
. Total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect


Explanation

For reverse Hill-Sachs lesions involving 20% to 40% of the articular surface, the modified McLaughlin procedure (transfer of the lesser tuberosity and subscapularis into the defect) is indicated to prevent engagement. Defects greater than 40-50% generally require arthroplasty.

Question 7179

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 21-year-old collegiate rower undergoes shoulder arthroscopy for chronic, painful posterior shoulder instability. The surgeon visualizes an incomplete, concealed avulsion of the posteroinferior labrum. The articular margin remains intact, but there is loss of normal labral height. What is the correct eponym for this specific lesion?

. Bankart lesion
. ALPSA lesion
. GLAD lesion
. Kim lesion
. Bennett lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Kim lesion


Explanation

A Kim lesion is an incomplete, concealed avulsion of the posteroinferior labrum characterized by a superficial, intact articular margin but a deep tear causing retroversion of the labrum. It is common in athletes with repetitive posterior microtrauma.

Question 7180

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 26-year-old male volleyball player presents with insidious onset posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals a posterosuperior labral tear with a multiloculated cyst occupying the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following physical examination findings is most likely present?

. Atrophy of both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus
. Atrophy of the infraspinatus only
. Atrophy of the teres minor
. Medial winging of the scapula
. Decreased sensation over the lateral deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Atrophy of the infraspinatus only


Explanation

A paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch typically compresses the suprascapular nerve after it has innervated the supraspinatus. This leads to isolated denervation and atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle.