5. Sports Medicine MCQs

During knee flexion, which bundle of the Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) is the primary restraint to anterior tibial translation?

Which of the following bone grafting materials possesses osteogenic, osteoinductive, and osteoconductive properties?

During the 'ligamentization' process of a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft used for ACL reconstruction, at which postoperative time frame is the graft biomechanically at its weakest?

A professional football player sustains a severe hyperextension injury to his first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint (Turf toe). MRI confirms a complete tear of the plantar plate from the base of the proximal phalanx with proximal migration of the sesamoids (Grade 3). What is the most appropriate management?

A 25-year-old female presents with chronic ankle pain after multiple sprains. MRI demonstrates a 2.0 cm squared osteochondral lesion of the medial talar dome with significant subchondral cystic changes. She has failed 6 months of conservative management. What is the most appropriate next step in surgical management?

A 28-year-old professional football player sustains an acute hyperextension injury to his first MTP joint. He exhibits significant ecchymosis, swelling, and an inability to bear weight. MRI confirms a complete tear of the plantar plate from the base of the proximal phalanx, with 5 mm of proximal retraction of the sesamoids compared to the contralateral side. What is the diagnosis and recommended management?

A 24-year-old football player sustains a severe hyperextension injury to his great toe. MRI reveals a complete rupture of the plantar plate with proximal retraction of the sesamoids. What is the most appropriate management?

A 20-year-old track athlete complains of vague, aching midfoot pain that worsens with sprinting. CT scan reveals an incomplete, non-displaced stress fracture in the central third of the tarsal navicular. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

A 26-year-old professional dancer presents with focal pain over the plantar aspect of the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint after forceful hyperextension ('Turf Toe'). MRI reveals a complete tear of the plantar plate with proximal retraction of the sesamoids. What is the most appropriate management?

A 24-year-old professional football player sustains a severe hyperdorsiflexion injury to his great toe. Clinical exam shows gross instability of the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint, and MRI confirms a complete rupture of the plantar plate with proximal retraction of the sesamoid complex. What is the most appropriate management?

A 15-year-old boy presented with inability to elevate his right shoulder and flex his elbow. He sustained a fall from an all-terrain vehicle 8 weeks ago. He landed on the right shoulder and twisted his neck. Radiographs of the skull, chest, cervical and thoracic spine, and shoulder were normal. There was no loss of consciousness, chest pain, or breathing difficulties. The patient was observed in the hospital until stable and referred for follow-up in the hand clinic at 4 weeks. An electromyelogram (EMG) was scheduled. Clinical examination revealed weakness of deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus. The remainder of his forearm musculature was preserved and he could grasp, release, and pinch. Sensations were decreased along the distribution of the axillary nerve. There was 3 cm wasting of his arm and 2 cm of the forearm. Tinel's sign is positive around the clavicle. Horner's signs are absent and his arm lies against the body. The EMG report showed fibrillation potentials in the weak muscles. The patient can now flex his elbow. When asked to demonstrate, he flexes his wrist and pronates his forearm to swing his elbow into flexion. The least helpful test in further management of this patient is:

A 15-year-old boy presented with inability to elevate his right shoulder and flex his elbow. He sustained a fall from an all-terrain vehicle 8 weeks ago. He landed on the right shoulder and twisted his neck. Radiographs of the skull, chest, cervical and thoracic spine, and shoulder were normal. There was no loss of consciousness, chest pain, or breathing difficulties. The patient was observed in the hospital until stable and referred for follow-up in the hand clinic at 4 weeks. An electromyelogram (EMG) was scheduled. Clinical examination revealed weakness of deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus. The remainder of his forearm musculature was preserved and he could grasp, release, and pinch. Sensations were decreased along the distribution of the axillary nerve. There was 3 cm wasting of his arm and 2 cm of the forearm. Tinel's sign is positive around the clavicle. Horner's signs are absent and his arm lies against the body. The EMG report showed fibrillation potentials in the weak muscles. The patient can now flex his elbow. When asked to demonstrate, he flexes his wrist and pronates his forearm to swing his elbow into flexion. The most important indication for early exploration in this patient is:

A 22-year-old soccer player continues to experience a positive pivot shift test following a primary anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, despite normal sagittal plane stability. What surgical technical error during tunnel placement most commonly accounts for this residual rotational instability?

During a physical examination of the knee, the pivot shift test is performed to assess anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) integrity. The test primarily evaluates the function of which ACL bundle, and in what position does the tibia typically subluxate?

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate to restore stability?

During anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft, which of the following is the most common cause of early graft failure (within the first 6 months)?

Following a primary repair of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) and flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) tendons in Zone II of the hand, what is the most common complication leading to a poor functional outcome?

A 22-year-old collegiate wrestler suffers recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Advanced imaging reveals an 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesion and a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical intervention?

During the remodeling phase (approximately 6 to 8 weeks postoperatively) of an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a soft tissue autograft, which part of the reconstruction is generally considered the weakest link?

A 22-year-old female soccer player sustains a non-contact pivoting injury to her right knee. Radiographs reveal a small elliptical avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau just distal to the articular surface. This radiographic finding is pathognomonic for an injury to which of the following structures?