This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 5. Sports Medicine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 6721
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 35-year-old male suffers a seizure and presents with his shoulder locked in internal rotation. A CT scan confirms an irreducible posterior shoulder dislocation with a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion (anteromedial humeral head impaction) involving 35% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical management for this humeral head defect to prevent recurrent instability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Open reduction and transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect (modified McLaughlin procedure)
Explanation
For a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 20-40% of the articular surface, filling the defect is required to prevent it from engaging the posterior glenoid rim. The modified McLaughlin procedure (transfer of the lesser tuberosity with the attached subscapularis tendon into the defect) is the standard of care for defects of this size.
Question 6722
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 30-year-old volleyball player presents with isolated weakness in external rotation of the shoulder. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch will typically result in denervation of which of the following muscles?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Infraspinatus only
Explanation
The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch. Therefore, a cyst at the spinoglenoid notch selectively compresses the distal nerve branch, causing isolated infraspinatus denervation.
Question 6723
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 25-year-old male undergoes a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Postoperatively, he has profound weakness in elbow flexion and decreased sensation over the lateral forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during coracoid retraction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation
The musculocutaneous nerve typically enters the coracobrachialis 5 to 8 cm distal to the coracoid process. Vigorous medial retraction of the conjoined tendon during a Latarjet procedure places this nerve at high risk for neuropraxia.
Question 6724
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT evaluation reveals anterior glenoid bone loss. The glenoid width measures 30 mm, and the anterior defect measures 6 mm. According to the glenoid track concept, what is the calculated width of this patient's glenoid track?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 18.9 mm
Explanation
The width of the glenoid track is calculated as 83% of the inferior glenoid diameter (D), minus the width of the anterior bone defect (d). Formula: Glenoid track = (0.83 * D) - d. Given D = 30 mm and d = 6 mm. First, 0.83 * 30 = 24.9 mm. Then, 24.9 - 6 = 18.9 mm. The glenoid track width is 18.9 mm.
Question 6725
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During a Latarjet procedure for anterior shoulder instability, the coracoid process is osteotomized and transferred to the anterior glenoid rim. Which nerve is at greatest risk of injury during the medial retraction of the conjoined tendon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation
The musculocutaneous nerve typically enters the coracobrachialis muscle approximately 5 to 8 cm distal to the tip of the coracoid process (though this can be variable). Medial and aggressive retraction of the conjoined tendon during the Latarjet procedure places significant traction on this nerve, making it the most vulnerable structure during this specific step of the operation.
Question 6726
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 31-year-old elite volleyball player presents with insidious onset of posterior shoulder pain and weakness. Physical examination demonstrates normal external rotation strength in adduction, but profound weakness in external rotation with the arm abducted. Muscle atrophy is noted exclusively in the infraspinatus fossa. Where is the most likely location of a paralabral cyst in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
Isolated atrophy and weakness of the infraspinatus indicate compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch. At this level, the nerve has already given off its motor branches to the supraspinatus (which occurs more proximally at the suprascapular notch). Spinoglenoid cysts are highly associated with posterior SLAP tears.
Question 6727
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 65-year-old man presents with pseudoparalysis of the shoulder, an inability to actively externally rotate, and a positive hornblower's sign. Imaging reveals a massive, retracted, irreducible tear of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor. The subscapularis is fully intact. He wishes to undergo a tendon transfer. Which of the following tendon transfers is most appropriate for restoring his external rotation and forward elevation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
Explanation
Latissimus dorsi or lower trapezius tendon transfers are the preferred surgical options for younger, active patients with massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears (supraspinatus and infraspinatus/teres minor) who have an intact subscapularis. An intact subscapularis is a vital prerequisite for a successful latissimus dorsi transfer to provide an anterior counterforce (force couple) for overhead function. Pectoralis major transfers are used for irreparable subscapularis tears.
Question 6728
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During the physical examination of a patient with a suspected rotator cuff tear, you wish to isolate the function of the inferior (lower) portion of the subscapularis muscle. Which of the following provocative tests is most specific for assessing the lower subscapularis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lift-off test
Explanation
The subscapularis has distinct functional zones. The superior portion is primarily tested by the belly-press and bear-hug tests. The lift-off test (Gerber's test) requires internal rotation behind the back, which biomechanically isolates the inferior (lower) portion of the subscapularis. An inability to lift the hand off the lumbar spine indicates a tear involving the lower subscapularis.
Question 6729
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher complains of right shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He exhibits a significant Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD). If diagnostic arthroscopy is performed for suspected internal impingement, what is the most characteristic pattern of pathology observed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterosuperior labral fraying/tear and articular-sided tearing at the supraspinatus-infraspinatus junction.
Explanation
Internal impingement in overhead throwing athletes occurs during the late cocking phase (abduction and maximum external rotation). In this position, the articular surface of the posterosuperior rotator cuff (supraspinatus/infraspinatus interval) abuts against the posterosuperior glenoid labrum. This pathologic contact leads to 'kissing lesions': articular-sided cuff tears and posterosuperior labral tears.
Question 6730
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
In the surgical evaluation for a Superior Capsular Reconstruction (SCR) in a patient with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear, which of the following preoperative findings is considered an absolute contraindication to the procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hamada grade 4 glenohumeral osteoarthritis
Explanation
Superior Capsular Reconstruction (SCR) is indicated for massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears in patients without advanced arthritis. Advanced glenohumeral osteoarthritis (Hamada grade 4 or 5) is an absolute contraindication to SCR; these patients are better served with a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA). An intact subscapularis is actually preferred for SCR success.
Question 6731
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During a Latarjet procedure, the coracoid bone block is secured to the anterior glenoid neck with two screws. If the screws are directed too far medially (e.g., greater than 15 degrees medial to the glenoid articular surface), which neurologic structure is at the greatest risk of iatrogenic injury from the prominent screw tips posteriorly?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Suprascapular nerve
Explanation
Screws directed excessively medial during a Latarjet procedure can breach the posterior glenoid neck and enter the spinoglenoid notch. The suprascapular nerve courses through this notch to innervate the infraspinatus and is at high risk of injury from prominent or misdirected hardware.
Question 6732
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 20-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with symptomatic Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD). Which of the following anatomic changes is considered the primary driver of GIRD in the overhead throwing athlete?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Contracture and thickening of the posteroinferior capsule
Explanation
In overhead throwing athletes, repetitive microtrauma during the deceleration phase of throwing leads to hypertrophy, thickening, and contracture of the posteroinferior capsule. This contracture shifts the glenohumeral contact point posterosuperiorly in maximum external rotation and is the primary soft-tissue driver of GIRD.
Question 6733
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 45-year-old male presents with severe, unremitting right shoulder pain that awoke him from sleep. The acute pain subsided after two weeks, but he now has profound weakness in forward elevation and external rotation. If an MRI is obtained, what is the most likely finding?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increased T2 signal (denervation edema) in the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscle bellies without tendon disruption
Explanation
The clinical presentation is classic for Parsonage-Turner Syndrome (neuralgic amyotrophy / acute brachial neuritis). Following the acute painful phase, patients develop profound weakness. MRI typically reveals denervation edema (increased T2 signal) in the affected muscles (commonly supraspinatus, infraspinatus, or deltoid) with structurally intact rotator cuff tendons.
Question 6734
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
In the surgical management of anterior shoulder instability, a 'remplissage' procedure involves tenodesis of the infraspinatus tendon and posterior capsule into a humeral head defect. Which of the following is the most appropriate indication for performing a remplissage in conjunction with an arthroscopic Bankart repair?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subcritical glenoid bone loss (<15%) with an off-track (engaging) Hill-Sachs lesion
Explanation
A remplissage is indicated to address an 'off-track' (engaging) Hill-Sachs lesion in the setting of subcritical glenoid bone loss. If critical glenoid bone loss (>20-25%) is present, a bony augmentation procedure (e.g., Latarjet) is required regardless of the Hill-Sachs lesion.
Question 6735
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old rugby player undergoes a Latarjet procedure. Postoperatively, he has weakness in elbow flexion and decreased sensation over the lateral forearm. Improper retractor placement under which of the following structures is the most likely cause of this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Conjoint tendon
Explanation
The musculocutaneous nerve typically enters the conjoint tendon (coracobrachialis) 3-8 cm distal to the coracoid tip. Retractors placed too medially, deeply, or forcefully under the conjoint tendon during the Latarjet procedure can cause neuropraxia of the musculocutaneous nerve, leading to biceps weakness and lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve sensory deficits.
Question 6736
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 62-year-old male laborer presents with profound weakness in shoulder external rotation and a positive Hornblower's sign. MRI reveals a massive, retracted, and irreparable tear of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor. The subscapularis is intact. Which of the following tendon transfers provides the most biomechanically advantageous line of pull to restore external rotation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lower trapezius transfer
Explanation
For irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears with profound external rotation weakness (infraspinatus/teres minor deficit), the lower trapezius transfer (often augmented with an Achilles tendon allograft) closely matches the physiological line of pull of the infraspinatus. This makes it biomechanically superior to the latissimus dorsi transfer, which has an inferior-to-superior vector.
Question 6737
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. Forward elevation and internal rotation strength are normal. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Where is this cyst most likely located?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
A cyst at the spinoglenoid notch compresses the suprascapular nerve after it has already given off its motor branches to the supraspinatus, resulting in isolated denervation and weakness of the infraspinatus (manifesting as an external rotation deficit). Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.
Question 6738
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague shoulder pain and decreased throwing velocity. Physical examination reveals a 25-degree loss of glenohumeral internal rotation compared to the contralateral side, but total arc of motion is symmetric. What is the primary pathophysiologic cause of this internal rotation deficit?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior capsular contracture
Explanation
Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) in overhead athletes is classically caused by contracture and thickening of the posteroinferior capsule. This forces the humeral head posterosuperiorly during the late cocking phase, predisposing the athlete to internal impingement and SLAP tears. Sleeper stretches are the mainstay of initial treatment.
Question 6739
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
In an overhead throwing athlete, a Type II SLAP tear is often generated by the 'peel-back' mechanism. During which phase of the throwing motion does the maximal peel-back force occur on the superior labrum?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Late cocking
Explanation
The 'peel-back' mechanism occurs primarily during the late cocking phase of throwing, when the shoulder reaches maximum abduction and external rotation. In this position, the long head of the biceps vector shifts posteriorly and transmits a strong torsional force to the superior labral anchor, leading to labral detachment.
Question 6740
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A latissimus dorsi tendon transfer is being considered for a 55-year-old male with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. Which of the following preoperative findings is considered an absolute contraindication to performing this specific tendon transfer?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Irreparable subscapularis tendon tear
Explanation
A latissimus dorsi transfer depends heavily on an intact anterior force couple to dynamically stabilize the humeral head in the glenoid during arm elevation. Therefore, an irreparable subscapularis tear is considered an absolute contraindication, as the joint will remain uncoupled and unbalanced, leading to inevitable failure of the transfer.
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