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Question 6601

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

An 18-year-old male is evaluated for multidirectional instability (MDI) of the shoulder. He has generalized ligamentous laxity and positive sulcus signs bilaterally. Non-operative management with targeted physical therapy has failed after 9 months. If surgery is performed, what is the most critical intraoperative step to ensure success?

. Remplissage procedure
. Latarjet coracoid transfer
. Plication of the rotator interval and capsular shift
. Superior labral repair from anterior to posterior
. Subscapularis advancement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Plication of the rotator interval and capsular shift


Explanation

The surgical treatment of choice for refractory MDI is a global capsular shift, which addresses the redundant capsule. Plication of the rotator interval is a critical component to eliminate inferior subluxation and tighten the anterior structures appropriately.

Question 6602

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A patient undergoes a superior capsular reconstruction (SCR) using a dermal allograft for an irreparable supraspinatus tear. For the graft to effectively depress the humeral head and restore the superior restraint, to which two structures must the graft be securely fixated medially and laterally?

. Coracoid process medially; Lesser tuberosity laterally
. Acromion medially; Greater tuberosity laterally
. Superior glenoid medially; Greater tuberosity laterally
. Superior glenoid medially; Humeral head articular surface laterally
. Clavicle medially; Greater tuberosity laterally

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior glenoid medially; Greater tuberosity laterally


Explanation

In a Superior Capsular Reconstruction (SCR), the graft is anchored to the superior glenoid (medially) and the greater tuberosity footprint (laterally). This acts as a static restraint to prevent superior migration of the humeral head.

Question 6603

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Six weeks following non-operative treatment of a nondisplaced Colles fracture, a 60-year-old female presents with a sudden inability to actively extend her thumb interphalangeal joint. What is the most appropriate management?

. Extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon transfer
. Primary end-to-end repair of the EPL tendon
. Palmaris longus autograft interposition
. Thumb spica casting for 4 weeks
. Extensor carpi radialis longus (ECRL) to EPL tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon transfer


Explanation

Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon ruptures can occur late after distal radius fractures due to ischemia or attrition at Lister's tubercle. Because the tendon ends are typically frayed and retracted, primary repair is rarely possible, making EIP to EPL transfer the gold standard.

Question 6604

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old professional soccer player undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. Preoperative MRI revealed a suspicious fluid signal posterior to the medial meniscus. Intraoperatively, the surgeon suspects a 'ramp lesion'. Which of the following arthroscopic approaches provides the most optimal visualization for accurate diagnosis and repair of this specific lesion?

. Standard anteromedial portal
. Standard anterolateral portal
. Posteromedial portal
. Posterolateral portal
. Accessory high anteromedial portal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posteromedial portal


Explanation

Ramp lesions are longitudinal meniscocapsular separations of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus, often associated with ACL ruptures. They represent a 'hidden lesion' that is frequently missed if the posterior compartments are not specifically evaluated. Viewing through an intercondylar trans-notch approach or utilizing a direct posteromedial portal is essential for accurate diagnosis and subsequent surgical repair.

Question 6605

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. The surgeon plans to perform a Latarjet procedure. Which of the following biomechanical mechanisms is considered the primary stabilizer provided by this procedure when the shoulder is in the abducted and externally rotated position?

. The bone block effect of the transferred coracoid
. The sling effect of the conjoint tendon
. The reconstruction of the anterior capsulolabral complex (Bankart repair)
. The tensioning of the coracoacromial ligament
. The superior translation of the subscapularis muscle belly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The sling effect of the conjoint tendon


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure provides anterior shoulder stability through a 'triple effect'. While the bone block replaces missing glenoid bone, biomechanical studies demonstrate that the 'sling effect' of the transferred conjoint tendon—which supports the inferior subscapularis and anterior capsule when the arm is in abduction and external rotation—is the most significant contributor to preventing anterior translation in the apprehension position.

Question 6606

Topic: Knee Sports

During a double-bundle posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction, understanding the reciprocal tension pattern of the native PCL bundles is critical. Which of the following accurately describes the biomechanical behavior of the native PCL bundles during knee motion?

. The anterolateral bundle is tight in extension and the posteromedial bundle is tight in flexion
. The anterolateral bundle is tight in flexion and the posteromedial bundle is tight in extension
. Both bundles are maximally tight in deep flexion
. Both bundles are maximally tight in full extension
. The anterolateral bundle primarily resists external rotation throughout the arc of motion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The anterolateral bundle is tight in flexion and the posteromedial bundle is tight in extension


Explanation

The native PCL consists of two primary bundles: the larger anterolateral (AL) bundle and the smaller posteromedial (PM) bundle. Biomechanically, the AL bundle is maximally tight in flexion, whereas the PM bundle is tight in extension. This reciprocal tension pattern must be recreated during a double-bundle PCL reconstruction to restore normal knee kinematics.

Question 6607

Topic: Knee Sports

A 19-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. Non-operative management has failed. Advanced imaging demonstrates an intact patellofemoral cartilage profile but reveals an elevated tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance. Above what specific TT-TG threshold is a medializing tibial tubercle osteotomy generally indicated?

. 10 mm
. 12 mm
. 15 mm
. 20 mm
. 30 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 20 mm


Explanation

The tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance is traditionally measured on axial CT or MRI scans. A normal TT-TG distance is generally considered to be less than 15 mm. A distance of 15-20 mm is borderline, while a distance greater than 20 mm is considered highly abnormal and is a primary indication for an anteromedializing tibial tubercle osteotomy (e.g., Fulkerson osteotomy) to correct the extensor mechanism alignment.

Question 6608

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old male volleyball player presents with insidious onset of vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst extending posteriorly. Compression of the involved neural structure at which of the following anatomic locations is the most likely cause of his specific physical exam findings?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Triangular space

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

The patient has isolated external rotation weakness, which points to isolated infraspinatus denervation. A paralabral cyst associated with a posterior labral tear frequently decompresses into the spinoglenoid notch. The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Therefore, compression at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus, whereas compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 6609

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 30-year-old weightlifter feels a sudden 'pop' and tearing sensation in his anterior axillary fold while performing a heavy bench press. He is diagnosed with a pectoralis major tendon rupture. Which of the following accurately describes the anatomic relationship of the pectoralis major tendon at its insertion site?

. The sternal head inserts proximal and anterior to the clavicular head
. The sternal head inserts distal and anterior to the clavicular head
. The sternal head twists 180 degrees to insert proximal and deep (posterior) to the clavicular head
. The sternal head twists 180 degrees to insert distal and deep (posterior) to the clavicular head
. The clavicular and sternal heads run parallel and do not twist prior to insertion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The sternal head twists 180 degrees to insert distal and deep (posterior) to the clavicular head


Explanation

The pectoralis major consists of a clavicular and a sternal head. As the tendinous fibers course laterally toward their insertion on the lateral lip of the bicipital groove, the lower (sternal) fibers twist 180 degrees. Consequently, the sternal head inserts proximal and deep (posterior) relative to the clavicular head. Due to this unique anatomy and tensioning, the sternal head is typically the first to rupture during maximal eccentric loading.

Question 6610

Topic: Knee Sports

A 55-year-old female reports a sudden, sharp pain in the back of her knee while descending stairs. MRI of the knee demonstrates a classic 'ghost sign'. This specific radiographic sign is most indicative of which of the following pathologies?

. Posterior medial meniscal root tear on sagittal MRI
. Posterolateral corner injury on coronal MRI
. Anterior cruciate ligament tibial avulsion on lateral radiograph
. Osteochondritis dissecans of the medial femoral condyle on a notch view radiograph
. Discoid lateral meniscus on an axial MRI

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior medial meniscal root tear on sagittal MRI


Explanation

The 'ghost sign' is classically seen on sagittal MRI sequences and refers to the absence of the normal low-signal 'bow-tie' appearance of the posterior horn of the meniscus. This is highly indicative of a meniscal root tear. Medial meniscal posterior root tears disrupt circumferential hoop stresses, leading to functional meniscectomy, meniscal extrusion, and rapid progression of unicompartmental osteoarthritis.

Question 6611

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 23-year-old collegiate hockey player complains of insidious anterior groin pain that worsens with deep flexion. Physical examination reveals limited internal rotation in flexion, and a positive anterior impingement test. Radiographs show an alpha angle of 68 degrees. In Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), the offending osseous deformity is most frequently located at which aspect of the proximal femur?

. Anteromedial aspect of the femoral head-neck junction
. Anterosuperior aspect of the femoral head-neck junction
. Posteromedial aspect of the femoral head-neck junction
. Posterosuperior aspect of the femoral head-neck junction
. Directly lateral aspect of the greater trochanter

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterosuperior aspect of the femoral head-neck junction


Explanation

Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) is characterized by an aspherical femoral head due to an osseous bump or decreased head-neck offset. This deformity is most commonly located at the anterosuperior aspect of the femoral head-neck junction. During activities involving hip flexion and internal rotation, this non-spherical portion impinges against the anterosuperior acetabular rim, causing labral tears and adjacent chondral delamination.

Question 6612

Topic: Knee Sports

A 30-year-old male presents to the clinic after a hyperextension knee injury. During physical examination, the Dial test reveals 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. However, at 90 degrees of knee flexion, the external rotation is symmetric bilaterally. This clinical finding isolated to 30 degrees of flexion primarily implicates injury to which of the following structures?

. Posterolateral corner (popliteus, LCL, popliteofibular ligament)
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) and Posterolateral corner combined
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and Medial collateral ligament (MCL)
. Posteromedial corner (posterior oblique ligament, semimembranosus)
. Isolated Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral corner (popliteus, LCL, popliteofibular ligament)


Explanation

The Dial test evaluates for posterolateral corner (PLC) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injuries. A positive test (generally defined as >10 degrees of increased external rotation compared to the normal side) at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetric at 90 degrees, indicates an isolated injury to the PLC structures (LCL, popliteus tendon, popliteofibular ligament). If the test is positive at both 30 and 90 degrees, it indicates a combined injury to both the PLC and the PCL.

Question 6613

Topic: General Sports & Tendon

A 35-year-old competitive water skier sustains an acute, complete, three-tendon proximal hamstring avulsion with 4 cm of retraction. Surgical repair is indicated. Which of the following peripheral nerves is anatomically situated closest to the ischial tuberosity footprint and is at the highest risk of iatrogenic injury during deep surgical dissection?

. Pudendal nerve
. Inferior gluteal nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Sciatic nerve
. Posterior femoral cutaneous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sciatic nerve


Explanation

The proximal hamstring complex originates from the ischial tuberosity. The sciatic nerve courses immediately lateral (average 1.2 cm) to the lateral border of the ischial tuberosity. In cases of acute avulsion with hematoma, or chronic cases with scar tissue, the normal anatomical planes are distorted, placing the sciatic nerve at extremely high risk of injury during exploration and suture anchor repair of the footprint.

Question 6614

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 25-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain. Workup reveals 'internal impingement'. This pathologic process involves the articular surface of the rotator cuff becoming pinched between the greater tuberosity and the posterosuperior glenoid. During which specific phase of the throwing motion does this impingement primarily occur?

. Late cocking / early acceleration phase
. Wind-up phase
. Early cocking phase
. Deceleration phase
. Follow-through phase

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Late cocking / early acceleration phase


Explanation

Internal impingement of the shoulder typically affects overhead athletes. It occurs when the arm is positioned in extreme abduction and external rotation, which happens during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing. In this position, the articular surface of the supraspinatus and anterior infraspinatus tendons gets compressed against the posterosuperior glenoid labrum.

Question 6615

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 60-year-old male manual laborer presents with chronic shoulder weakness and pseudoparalysis of forward elevation. MRI demonstrates a massive, retracted, and irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear (supraspinatus and infraspinatus) with advanced fatty infiltration (Goutallier stage 4), but the subscapularis is fully intact. There is no evidence of glenohumeral osteoarthritis. Which of the following is the most appropriate tendon transfer to restore active external rotation and elevation?

. Pectoralis major transfer
. Latissimus dorsi or lower trapezius transfer
. Conjoint tendon transfer
. Biceps tenodesis and subacromial decompression
. Coracobrachialis transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latissimus dorsi or lower trapezius transfer


Explanation

In a younger or highly active patient with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear (involving the supraspinatus and infraspinatus) and no significant glenohumeral arthritis, a latissimus dorsi or lower trapezius tendon transfer is indicated. These transfers recreate the force couple provided by the posterior cuff, significantly improving active external rotation and forward elevation. Pectoralis major transfer is typically reserved for irreparable subscapularis tears.

Question 6616

Topic: Knee Sports
A surgeon is performing a medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction on an 18-year-old female. Precise anatomic location of the femoral attachment is critical to avoid graft anisometry. Radiographically identified by Schöttle's point, where is the true anatomic femoral footprint of the MPFL located?
. In the saddle region between the adductor tubercle and the medial epicondyle
. Directly 2 cm proximal to the adductor tubercle
. Directly on the anterior aspect of the medial epicondyle
. On the medial joint line at the insertion of the deep MCL
. On the supracondylar ridge posterior to the medial intermuscular septum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. In the saddle region between the adductor tubercle and the medial epicondyle


Explanation

The anatomic femoral origin of the MPFL is located in a 'saddle' or sulcus on the medial aspect of the distal femur, specifically between the adductor tubercle (proximal and posterior) and the medial epicondyle (distal and anterior). Radiographically, Schöttle's point is used on a perfect lateral fluoroscopic image to identify this footprint. Non-anatomic placement, particularly placing the graft too proximal or anterior, leads to excessive graft tension during knee flexion.

Question 6617

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 13-year-old male athlete presents with vague anterior knee pain and catching. Radiographs and subsequent MRI confirm the presence of Osteochondritis Dissecans (OCD) with intact overlying articular cartilage. Statistically, what is the most common anatomic location for an OCD lesion in the knee?

. Central portion of the medial femoral condyle
. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Lateral aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Central trochlear groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle


Explanation

Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the knee most frequently occurs on the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle. This location accounts for approximately 70-80% of all knee OCD lesions. A common mnemonic to remember this is 'LAME' (Lateral Aspect of the Medial Epicondyle/Condyle). Because the patient's physes are open and the cartilage is intact (stable lesion), initial treatment should be non-operative, focusing on activity modification and restricted weight-bearing.

Question 6618

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 20-year-old elite track athlete sustains an acute fracture at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction of the 5th metatarsal (Jones fracture) during a sprint. Given her status as a high-level competitive athlete, what is the gold standard treatment to minimize the risk of nonunion and expedite return to play?

. Non-weight bearing short leg cast for 6 weeks
. Weight bearing as tolerated in a rigid walking boot
. Early intramedullary screw fixation
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate
. Primary excision of the proximal pole fragment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Early intramedullary screw fixation


Explanation

A Jones fracture occurs at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal. This specific location is notorious for being a vascular 'watershed' zone, leading to high rates of delayed union and nonunion with conservative treatment. In elite or highly competitive athletes, early intramedullary screw fixation is the treatment of choice, as it significantly decreases the time to clinical union and allows for a faster, more predictable return to play.

Question 6619

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 9-year-old boy (Tanner Stage 1) sustains a complete anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) rupture while skiing. He has wide-open physes and significant remaining growth potential. The parents opt for surgical intervention due to severe recurrent instability. Which surgical technique is most strongly recommended to minimize the risk of iatrogenic leg length discrepancy or angular deformity?

. Standard transphyseal bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft reconstruction
. Iliotibial band (ITB) physeal-sparing reconstruction (e.g., Micheli-Kocher procedure)
. Direct primary repair of the ACL stump with suture anchors
. Transphyseal hamstring autograft utilizing an interference screw across the physis
. High tibial closing wedge osteotomy to alter the posterior tibial slope

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliotibial band (ITB) physeal-sparing reconstruction (e.g., Micheli-Kocher procedure)


Explanation

In prepubescent children (Tanner stage 1 or 2) with significant remaining growth potential, traditional transphyseal ACL reconstructions (especially those utilizing bone blocks or placing fixation hardware across the physis) pose a high risk of physeal arrest, leading to leg-length discrepancies or severe angular deformities. A physeal-sparing extra-articular/intra-articular technique, such as the iliotibial band over-the-top technique (Micheli-Kocher), completely avoids drilling across the femoral and tibial physes and is the recommended approach.

Question 6620

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old football player sustains a knee hyperextension injury. On physical examination, the dial test reveals a 15-degree increase in external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. However, at 90 degrees of knee flexion, external rotation is symmetric bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Isolated anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury
. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury
. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
. Combined PCL and PLC injury
. Combined ACL and PLC injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury


Explanation

The dial test measures external rotation of the tibia. An increase of 10-15 degrees or more compared to the normal knee is positive. Increased external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion with symmetry at 90 degrees indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. If external rotation is increased at both 30 and 90 degrees, it suggests a combined PCL and PLC injury.