This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 5. Sports Medicine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 6601
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
An 18-year-old male is evaluated for multidirectional instability (MDI) of the shoulder. He has generalized ligamentous laxity and positive sulcus signs bilaterally. Non-operative management with targeted physical therapy has failed after 9 months. If surgery is performed, what is the most critical intraoperative step to ensure success?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Plication of the rotator interval and capsular shift
Explanation
The surgical treatment of choice for refractory MDI is a global capsular shift, which addresses the redundant capsule. Plication of the rotator interval is a critical component to eliminate inferior subluxation and tighten the anterior structures appropriately.
Question 6602
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A patient undergoes a superior capsular reconstruction (SCR) using a dermal allograft for an irreparable supraspinatus tear. For the graft to effectively depress the humeral head and restore the superior restraint, to which two structures must the graft be securely fixated medially and laterally?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior glenoid medially; Greater tuberosity laterally
Explanation
In a Superior Capsular Reconstruction (SCR), the graft is anchored to the superior glenoid (medially) and the greater tuberosity footprint (laterally). This acts as a static restraint to prevent superior migration of the humeral head.
Question 6603
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Six weeks following non-operative treatment of a nondisplaced Colles fracture, a 60-year-old female presents with a sudden inability to actively extend her thumb interphalangeal joint. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon transfer
Explanation
Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon ruptures can occur late after distal radius fractures due to ischemia or attrition at Lister's tubercle. Because the tendon ends are typically frayed and retracted, primary repair is rarely possible, making EIP to EPL transfer the gold standard.
Question 6604
Topic: Knee Sports
A 25-year-old professional soccer player undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. Preoperative MRI revealed a suspicious fluid signal posterior to the medial meniscus. Intraoperatively, the surgeon suspects a 'ramp lesion'. Which of the following arthroscopic approaches provides the most optimal visualization for accurate diagnosis and repair of this specific lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posteromedial portal
Explanation
Ramp lesions are longitudinal meniscocapsular separations of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus, often associated with ACL ruptures. They represent a 'hidden lesion' that is frequently missed if the posterior compartments are not specifically evaluated. Viewing through an intercondylar trans-notch approach or utilizing a direct posteromedial portal is essential for accurate diagnosis and subsequent surgical repair.
Question 6605
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. The surgeon plans to perform a Latarjet procedure. Which of the following biomechanical mechanisms is considered the primary stabilizer provided by this procedure when the shoulder is in the abducted and externally rotated position?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The sling effect of the conjoint tendon
Explanation
The Latarjet procedure provides anterior shoulder stability through a 'triple effect'. While the bone block replaces missing glenoid bone, biomechanical studies demonstrate that the 'sling effect' of the transferred conjoint tendon—which supports the inferior subscapularis and anterior capsule when the arm is in abduction and external rotation—is the most significant contributor to preventing anterior translation in the apprehension position.
Question 6606
Topic: Knee Sports
During a double-bundle posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction, understanding the reciprocal tension pattern of the native PCL bundles is critical. Which of the following accurately describes the biomechanical behavior of the native PCL bundles during knee motion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The anterolateral bundle is tight in flexion and the posteromedial bundle is tight in extension
Explanation
The native PCL consists of two primary bundles: the larger anterolateral (AL) bundle and the smaller posteromedial (PM) bundle. Biomechanically, the AL bundle is maximally tight in flexion, whereas the PM bundle is tight in extension. This reciprocal tension pattern must be recreated during a double-bundle PCL reconstruction to restore normal knee kinematics.
Question 6607
Topic: Knee Sports
A 19-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. Non-operative management has failed. Advanced imaging demonstrates an intact patellofemoral cartilage profile but reveals an elevated tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance. Above what specific TT-TG threshold is a medializing tibial tubercle osteotomy generally indicated?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 20 mm
Explanation
The tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance is traditionally measured on axial CT or MRI scans. A normal TT-TG distance is generally considered to be less than 15 mm. A distance of 15-20 mm is borderline, while a distance greater than 20 mm is considered highly abnormal and is a primary indication for an anteromedializing tibial tubercle osteotomy (e.g., Fulkerson osteotomy) to correct the extensor mechanism alignment.
Question 6608
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old male volleyball player presents with insidious onset of vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst extending posteriorly. Compression of the involved neural structure at which of the following anatomic locations is the most likely cause of his specific physical exam findings?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
The patient has isolated external rotation weakness, which points to isolated infraspinatus denervation. A paralabral cyst associated with a posterior labral tear frequently decompresses into the spinoglenoid notch. The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Therefore, compression at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus, whereas compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.
Question 6609
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 30-year-old weightlifter feels a sudden 'pop' and tearing sensation in his anterior axillary fold while performing a heavy bench press. He is diagnosed with a pectoralis major tendon rupture. Which of the following accurately describes the anatomic relationship of the pectoralis major tendon at its insertion site?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The sternal head twists 180 degrees to insert distal and deep (posterior) to the clavicular head
Explanation
The pectoralis major consists of a clavicular and a sternal head. As the tendinous fibers course laterally toward their insertion on the lateral lip of the bicipital groove, the lower (sternal) fibers twist 180 degrees. Consequently, the sternal head inserts proximal and deep (posterior) relative to the clavicular head. Due to this unique anatomy and tensioning, the sternal head is typically the first to rupture during maximal eccentric loading.
Question 6610
Topic: Knee Sports
A 55-year-old female reports a sudden, sharp pain in the back of her knee while descending stairs. MRI of the knee demonstrates a classic 'ghost sign'. This specific radiographic sign is most indicative of which of the following pathologies?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior medial meniscal root tear on sagittal MRI
Explanation
The 'ghost sign' is classically seen on sagittal MRI sequences and refers to the absence of the normal low-signal 'bow-tie' appearance of the posterior horn of the meniscus. This is highly indicative of a meniscal root tear. Medial meniscal posterior root tears disrupt circumferential hoop stresses, leading to functional meniscectomy, meniscal extrusion, and rapid progression of unicompartmental osteoarthritis.
Question 6611
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 23-year-old collegiate hockey player complains of insidious anterior groin pain that worsens with deep flexion. Physical examination reveals limited internal rotation in flexion, and a positive anterior impingement test. Radiographs show an alpha angle of 68 degrees. In Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), the offending osseous deformity is most frequently located at which aspect of the proximal femur?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterosuperior aspect of the femoral head-neck junction
Explanation
Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) is characterized by an aspherical femoral head due to an osseous bump or decreased head-neck offset. This deformity is most commonly located at the anterosuperior aspect of the femoral head-neck junction. During activities involving hip flexion and internal rotation, this non-spherical portion impinges against the anterosuperior acetabular rim, causing labral tears and adjacent chondral delamination.
Question 6612
Topic: Knee Sports
A 30-year-old male presents to the clinic after a hyperextension knee injury. During physical examination, the Dial test reveals 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. However, at 90 degrees of knee flexion, the external rotation is symmetric bilaterally. This clinical finding isolated to 30 degrees of flexion primarily implicates injury to which of the following structures?
The Dial test evaluates for posterolateral corner (PLC) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injuries. A positive test (generally defined as >10 degrees of increased external rotation compared to the normal side) at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetric at 90 degrees, indicates an isolated injury to the PLC structures (LCL, popliteus tendon, popliteofibular ligament). If the test is positive at both 30 and 90 degrees, it indicates a combined injury to both the PLC and the PCL.
Question 6613
Topic: General Sports & Tendon
A 35-year-old competitive water skier sustains an acute, complete, three-tendon proximal hamstring avulsion with 4 cm of retraction. Surgical repair is indicated. Which of the following peripheral nerves is anatomically situated closest to the ischial tuberosity footprint and is at the highest risk of iatrogenic injury during deep surgical dissection?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sciatic nerve
Explanation
The proximal hamstring complex originates from the ischial tuberosity. The sciatic nerve courses immediately lateral (average 1.2 cm) to the lateral border of the ischial tuberosity. In cases of acute avulsion with hematoma, or chronic cases with scar tissue, the normal anatomical planes are distorted, placing the sciatic nerve at extremely high risk of injury during exploration and suture anchor repair of the footprint.
Question 6614
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 25-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain. Workup reveals 'internal impingement'. This pathologic process involves the articular surface of the rotator cuff becoming pinched between the greater tuberosity and the posterosuperior glenoid. During which specific phase of the throwing motion does this impingement primarily occur?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Late cocking / early acceleration phase
Explanation
Internal impingement of the shoulder typically affects overhead athletes. It occurs when the arm is positioned in extreme abduction and external rotation, which happens during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing. In this position, the articular surface of the supraspinatus and anterior infraspinatus tendons gets compressed against the posterosuperior glenoid labrum.
Question 6615
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 60-year-old male manual laborer presents with chronic shoulder weakness and pseudoparalysis of forward elevation. MRI demonstrates a massive, retracted, and irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear (supraspinatus and infraspinatus) with advanced fatty infiltration (Goutallier stage 4), but the subscapularis is fully intact. There is no evidence of glenohumeral osteoarthritis. Which of the following is the most appropriate tendon transfer to restore active external rotation and elevation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Latissimus dorsi or lower trapezius transfer
Explanation
In a younger or highly active patient with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear (involving the supraspinatus and infraspinatus) and no significant glenohumeral arthritis, a latissimus dorsi or lower trapezius tendon transfer is indicated. These transfers recreate the force couple provided by the posterior cuff, significantly improving active external rotation and forward elevation. Pectoralis major transfer is typically reserved for irreparable subscapularis tears.
Question 6616
Topic: Knee Sports
A surgeon is performing a medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction on an 18-year-old female. Precise anatomic location of the femoral attachment is critical to avoid graft anisometry. Radiographically identified by Schöttle's point, where is the true anatomic femoral footprint of the MPFL located?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. In the saddle region between the adductor tubercle and the medial epicondyle
Explanation
The anatomic femoral origin of the MPFL is located in a 'saddle' or sulcus on the medial aspect of the distal femur, specifically between the adductor tubercle (proximal and posterior) and the medial epicondyle (distal and anterior). Radiographically, Schöttle's point is used on a perfect lateral fluoroscopic image to identify this footprint. Non-anatomic placement, particularly placing the graft too proximal or anterior, leads to excessive graft tension during knee flexion.
Question 6617
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 13-year-old male athlete presents with vague anterior knee pain and catching. Radiographs and subsequent MRI confirm the presence of Osteochondritis Dissecans (OCD) with intact overlying articular cartilage. Statistically, what is the most common anatomic location for an OCD lesion in the knee?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
Explanation
Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the knee most frequently occurs on the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle. This location accounts for approximately 70-80% of all knee OCD lesions. A common mnemonic to remember this is 'LAME' (Lateral Aspect of the Medial Epicondyle/Condyle). Because the patient's physes are open and the cartilage is intact (stable lesion), initial treatment should be non-operative, focusing on activity modification and restricted weight-bearing.
Question 6618
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 20-year-old elite track athlete sustains an acute fracture at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction of the 5th metatarsal (Jones fracture) during a sprint. Given her status as a high-level competitive athlete, what is the gold standard treatment to minimize the risk of nonunion and expedite return to play?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Early intramedullary screw fixation
Explanation
A Jones fracture occurs at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal. This specific location is notorious for being a vascular 'watershed' zone, leading to high rates of delayed union and nonunion with conservative treatment. In elite or highly competitive athletes, early intramedullary screw fixation is the treatment of choice, as it significantly decreases the time to clinical union and allows for a faster, more predictable return to play.
Question 6619
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 9-year-old boy (Tanner Stage 1) sustains a complete anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) rupture while skiing. He has wide-open physes and significant remaining growth potential. The parents opt for surgical intervention due to severe recurrent instability. Which surgical technique is most strongly recommended to minimize the risk of iatrogenic leg length discrepancy or angular deformity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Iliotibial band (ITB) physeal-sparing reconstruction (e.g., Micheli-Kocher procedure)
Explanation
In prepubescent children (Tanner stage 1 or 2) with significant remaining growth potential, traditional transphyseal ACL reconstructions (especially those utilizing bone blocks or placing fixation hardware across the physis) pose a high risk of physeal arrest, leading to leg-length discrepancies or severe angular deformities. A physeal-sparing extra-articular/intra-articular technique, such as the iliotibial band over-the-top technique (Micheli-Kocher), completely avoids drilling across the femoral and tibial physes and is the recommended approach.
Question 6620
Topic: Knee Sports
A 25-year-old football player sustains a knee hyperextension injury. On physical examination, the dial test reveals a 15-degree increase in external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. However, at 90 degrees of knee flexion, external rotation is symmetric bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
Explanation
The dial test measures external rotation of the tibia. An increase of 10-15 degrees or more compared to the normal knee is positive. Increased external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion with symmetry at 90 degrees indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. If external rotation is increased at both 30 and 90 degrees, it suggests a combined PCL and PLC injury.
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