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Question 6481

Topic: Knee Sports

The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is composed of two primary functional bundles: the anteromedial (AM) and the posterolateral (PL). Which statement accurately describes their dynamic biomechanical tensioning throughout knee range of motion?

. The AM bundle is tightest in extension; the PL bundle is tightest in flexion.
. The AM bundle is tightest in flexion; the PL bundle is tightest in extension.
. Both bundles are maximally tensioned evenly at 90 degrees of flexion.
. The PL bundle is the primary restraint to anterior tibial translation at 90 degrees of flexion.
. The AM bundle acts strictly as a rotary stabilizer in full extension.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The AM bundle is tightest in extension; the PL bundle is tightest in flexion.


Explanation

The anteromedial (AM) bundle of the ACL is tighter in flexion and provides the primary restraint to anterior tibial translation at 90 degrees. The posterolateral (PL) bundle is tighter in extension and is the primary restraint to rotatory loads (pivot shift) near full extension.

Question 6482

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Compared to a 10mm bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft, a quadrupled hamstring autograft for anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction demonstrates which of the following biomechanical properties at the time of implantation?

. Lower ultimate load to failure and lower stiffness
. Higher ultimate load to failure and higher stiffness
. Greater cross-sectional area but lower ultimate stiffness
. Identical stiffness but higher load to failure
. Lower load to failure but higher ultimate stiffness

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lower ultimate load to failure and lower stiffness


Explanation

A quadrupled hamstring graft has both a higher ultimate load to failure (over 4000 N) and higher stiffness compared to both the native ACL (2160 N) and a standard 10mm BTB graft (about 2977 N) at time zero testing.

Question 6483

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, which of the following anatomic scenarios is the primary indication for adding an arthroscopic remplissage to an anterior Bankart repair?

. An engaging 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesion with subcritical glenoid bone loss (<15%)
. An inverted pear glenoid indicating >25% glenoid bone loss
. A concomitant SLAP tear extending into the anterior labrum
. A full-thickness supraspinatus tear
. Chronic subscapularis insufficiency

Correct Answer & Explanation

. An engaging 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesion with subcritical glenoid bone loss (<15%)


Explanation

Remplissage (capsulotenodesis of the infraspinatus into the Hill-Sachs defect) is indicated for an engaging or 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesion when glenoid bone loss is subcritical (typically <15-20%). If critical glenoid bone loss is present, a bone block procedure (e.g., Latarjet) is required.

Question 6484

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

During an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft, the surgeon inadvertently places the femoral tunnel too far anteriorly (high in the intercondylar notch). What is the most likely clinical consequence of this technical error?

. The graft will be too loose in flexion and tight in extension
. The graft will be tight in flexion and limit terminal knee flexion
. The graft will impinge on the PCL during active extension
. The graft will experience increased laxity throughout the entire range of motion
. The patella will subluxate laterally during active extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The graft will be too loose in flexion and tight in extension


Explanation

A femoral tunnel that is placed too anteriorly (high in the notch) relative to the anatomic ACL footprint increases the distance between the femoral and tibial attachments as the knee flexes. This causes the graft to become excessively tight in flexion, limiting terminal knee flexion and potentially causing graft failure.

Question 6485

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During diagnostic arthroscopy for recurrent anterior shoulder instability in a 22-year-old male, the surgeon identifies an 'engaging' Hill-Sachs lesion. The surgeon opts for an arthroscopic Bankart repair combined with a 'remplissage' procedure. The remplissage technique involves the tenodesis of which structure into the humeral head defect?

. Supraspinatus tendon
. Infraspinatus tendon
. Teres minor tendon
. Long head of the biceps tendon
. Subscapularis tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus tendon


Explanation

The 'remplissage' (French for 'filling') procedure is utilized to treat large, engaging Hill-Sachs defects. It involves advancing and anchoring the infraspinatus tendon and the posterior joint capsule into the bony defect on the posterolateral humeral head. This effectively converts an intra-articular defect into an extra-articular one, preventing engagement on the anterior glenoid rim.

Question 6486

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination reveals a Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees compared to the contralateral side. Pathophysiologically, this condition is most directly associated with contracture of which of the following structures?

. Anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Middle glenohumeral ligament
. Posteroinferior capsule
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Superior labrum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament


Explanation

GIRD is clinically defined as a loss of internal rotation. It is biomechanically linked to contracture and thickening of the posteroinferior capsule. This capsular contracture alters glenohumeral kinematics during the throwing motion, shifting the humeral head's center of rotation posterosuperiorly, which predisposes the athlete to internal impingement and SLAP lesions.

Question 6487

Topic: Knee Sports
A 24-year-old football player sustains a direct blow to the proximal anterior tibia while his knee is flexed. A dial test is performed, which shows >10 degrees of increased external rotation at 90 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side, but symmetric external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion. This physical examination finding is most consistent with an isolated injury to which structure?
. Posterolateral corner (PLC)
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Both PCL and PLC
. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) isolated

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)


Explanation

The dial test evaluates for posterolateral instability. Increased external rotation (>10 degrees compared to the normal side) at 30 degrees of flexion only indicates an isolated Posterolateral Corner (PLC) injury. Increased external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion only indicates an isolated PCL injury. Increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees implies combined PLC and PCL injuries.

Question 6488

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

When evaluating a patient for anterior shoulder instability, the "glenoid track" concept is utilized to determine the need for a bone-blocking procedure. The glenoid track is defined as what percentage of the intact glenoid width?

. 63%
. 73%
. 83%
. 93%
. 100%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 63%


Explanation

The glenoid track is calculated as 83% of the intact glenoid width. If a Hill-Sachs lesion engages outside this track, it is considered "off-track", often necessitating an anterior bone block or remplissage.

Question 6489

Topic: Knee Sports

During an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, placement of the femoral tunnel too far anteriorly (shallow) will result in which of the following graft tensioning patterns?

. Tight in flexion and tight in extension
. Tight in flexion and loose in extension
. Loose in flexion and tight in extension
. Loose in flexion and loose in extension
. Isometric tension throughout the range of motion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tight in flexion and tight in extension


Explanation

A femoral tunnel placed too far anteriorly (shallow) in the intercondylar notch causes the graft to be excessively tight in flexion and loose in extension. This can lead to a loss of knee flexion and eventual stretching or failure of the graft.

Question 6490

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In a newborn with Erb's palsy (C5-C6 root injury), the arm is classically held in internal rotation, shoulder adduction, elbow extension, and forearm pronation (waiter's tip posture). Which muscle's paralysis primarily contributes to the inability to externally rotate the shoulder?

. Subscapularis
. Infraspinatus
. Pectoralis major
. Latissimus dorsi
. Teres major

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis


Explanation

Erb's palsy affects the upper trunk (C5-C6), paralyzing the suprascapular nerve, which innervates the infraspinatus (the primary external rotator). The intact internal rotators (subscapularis, pectoralis major) overpower the shoulder, forcing it into internal rotation.

Question 6491

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 25-year-old patient receives an intra-articular injection of bupivacaine during a knee arthroscopy. Bupivacaine achieves its local anesthetic effect primarily by binding to which of the following structures?

. Extracellular domain of calcium channels
. Intracellular domain of voltage-gated sodium channels
. GABA receptors in the dorsal horn
. Mu-opioid receptors
. NMDA receptors on peripheral nerve endings

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intracellular domain of voltage-gated sodium channels


Explanation

Local anesthetics are weak bases that cross the lipid bilayer of the nerve membrane in their un-ionized form. Once inside the cell, they become ionized and bind to the intracellular domain of voltage-gated sodium channels, preventing sodium influx and inhibiting action potential propagation.

Question 6492

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 24-year-old athlete undergoes a patellar tendon allograft reconstruction. In the immediate postoperative period, continuous passive motion is utilized. This motion helps provide nutrition to the articular cartilage primarily through which mechanism?

. Elastohydrodynamic lubrication
. Boundary lubrication
. Weeping lubrication
. Squeezed-film lubrication
. Hydrodynamic lubrication

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Weeping lubrication


Explanation

Articular cartilage is avascular and receives its nutrition via diffusion from synovial fluid. 'Weeping lubrication' occurs when cartilage is compressed and fluid is extruded onto the surface, which is then reabsorbed when the load is removed, driving convective transport of nutrients.

Question 6493

Topic: Knee Sports

When evaluating knee kinematics, which of the following properties is a primary design characteristic of a posterior-stabilized (PS) total knee arthroplasty compared to a cruciate-retaining (CR) design?

. Paradoxical anterior femoral translation in deep flexion
. Decreased patellofemoral contact forces in deep flexion
. Forced posterior femoral rollback dictated by the cam-post mechanism
. Reliance on the PCL for late flexion rollback
. Higher risk of anterior instability in extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Forced posterior femoral rollback dictated by the cam-post mechanism


Explanation

In a posterior-stabilized (PS) knee, the cam-post mechanism engages (typically at 60-70 degrees of flexion) to enforce posterior femoral rollback. This is a mechanical substitution for the excised PCL, unlike CR knees which rely on native PCL tension.

Question 6494

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old male hockey player presents with anterior groin pain exacerbated by deep hip flexion and internal rotation. AP pelvis radiographs reveal a prominent 'crossover sign' and a positive 'ischial spine sign'. Which of the following underlying conditions is most consistent with these exact radiographic findings?

. Cam impingement due to a severely decreased alpha angle
. Pincer impingement due to focal anterior acetabular retroversion
. Pincer impingement secondary to global acetabular anteversion
. Cam impingement due to a slipped capital femoral epiphysis deformity
. Ischiofemoral impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pincer impingement due to focal anterior acetabular retroversion


Explanation

The crossover sign (anterior wall projecting lateral to the posterior wall proximally) and a prominent ischial spine sign are classic radiographic hallmarks of acetabular retroversion. This retroversion leads to anterior over-coverage of the femoral head, producing Pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI).

Question 6495

Topic: Knee Sports

During a cruciate-retaining (CR) total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon notes that the anterior aspect of the tibial tray lifts off the baseplate during deep flexion, and there is excessive posterior femoral rollback. What is the most likely cause of this kinematic abnormality?

. A loose posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. A tight posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. An oversized femoral component
. A tight extension gap
. A loose medial collateral ligament (MCL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A tight posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)


Explanation

A tight PCL in a CR-TKA acts as a tether during knee flexion, causing excessive femoral rollback. As the femur is pulled forcefully posterior on the tibia, it creates a 'teeter-totter' effect that can cause the anterior aspect of the tibial component to lift off. This requires PCL recession or release.

Question 6496

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A surgeon is performing a surgical dislocation of the hip using the Ganz approach to treat femoroacetabular impingement. To protect the deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA), which of the following structures must be meticulously preserved and left attached to the femur?

. Piriformis
. Obturator internus
. Obturator externus
. Superior gemellus
. Quadratus femoris

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obturator externus


Explanation

During a Ganz surgical dislocation of the hip, the blood supply to the femoral head (deep branch of the MFCA) must be protected. The MFCA runs posterior to the obturator externus and anterior to the triceps coxae (obturator internus and gemelli). Preserving the obturator externus and performing the capsulotomy anterior to the lesser trochanter protects the deep branch of the MFCA.

Question 6497

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old collegiate hockey player presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate an alpha angle of 65 degrees on the modified Dunn lateral view, with no joint space narrowing. This pathology is primarily caused by an osseous deformity located at which specific region of the proximal femur?

. Posteromedial head-neck junction
. Posteroinferior head-neck junction
. Anterosuperior head-neck junction
. Lesser trochanter
. Fovea capitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterosuperior head-neck junction


Explanation

The patient has Cam-type Femoroacetabular Impingement (FAI), indicated by an alpha angle >55 degrees. The classic Cam lesion (an aspherical extension of articular cartilage) is characteristically located at the anterosuperior aspect of the femoral head-neck junction. During hip flexion and internal rotation, this prominence impinges against the anterosuperior acetabular labrum and articular cartilage, causing pain and labral tearing.

Question 6498

Topic: Knee Sports

During a cruciate-retaining (CR) TKA, the surgeon notices that the knee 'books open' anteriorly as it is flexed, and the femoral component rolls paradoxically anteriorly on the tibia during deep flexion. What is the primary cause of this kinematic abnormality?

. A deficient or over-released posterior cruciate ligament
. A posterior cruciate ligament that is too tight
. Oversizing the femoral component
. Excessive posterior slope of the tibial baseplate
. Impingement of the anterior intercondylar notch

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A posterior cruciate ligament that is too tight


Explanation

Paradoxical anterior rolling of the femur on the tibia during flexion in a CR TKA is a classic sign of a tight posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). A tight PCL forces the femur to rock back or hinge, causing the anterior portion of the joint to open like a book and driving the femur forward on the tibial plateau. Management involves incrementally releasing the PCL or increasing the posterior tibial slope to loosen the flexion space and PCL.

Question 6499

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In the evaluation of femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), atypical extra-articular impingement must be considered. Subspine impingement specifically involves pathological abutment between the anterior distal femoral neck and which of the following structures?

. Anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS)
. Anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)
. Ischial tuberosity
. Lesser trochanter
. Greater trochanter

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS)


Explanation

Subspine impingement is an extra-articular form of FAI characterized by abutment between a hypertrophic or distally extending anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS) and the anterior femoral neck during hip flexion. It is often a sequela of previous rectus femoris avulsion injuries.

Question 6500

Topic: Knee Sports

During a cruciate-retaining (CR) total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon notices that the tibial tray repeatedly lifts off anteriorly (book-opening) when the knee is brought into deep flexion. What is the most likely technical cause of this intraoperative finding?

. The flexion gap is excessively loose compared to the extension gap
. The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is excessively tight
. The anterior cruciate ligament was not completely resected
. The femoral component was placed in excessive extension
. The patellar tendon was completely avulsed

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is excessively tight


Explanation

In a CR TKA, if the PCL is retained but is excessively tight, it acts as an unyielding tether during flexion. This forces the femur to roll back excessively on the tibia, applying increased pressure on the posterior lip of the tibial polyethylene and causing the anterior aspect of the tibial tray to lift off ('book opening').