5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 14-year-old male presents with vague knee pain. Radiographs reveal an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion. What is the most common anatomic location for an OCD lesion in the knee?

A 35-year-old tennis player presents with anterior shoulder pain exacerbated by forward flexion and internal rotation. Examination demonstrates increased translation on the load-and-shift test and a positive bear-hug test. An MRI is obtained showing narrowing of the coracohumeral interval. Which structure is most likely to be injured in this condition?

A 45-year-old female presents with acute knee pain after squatting. MRI reveals a medial meniscus posterior root tear. Biomechanically, what is the consequence of this tear if left untreated?

In an overhead throwing athlete, the anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) of the elbow is the primary restraint to valgus stress. Which band of the anterior bundle is the primary restraint to valgus force in early flexion (30-60 degrees) and which is tightest in deeper flexion (90-120 degrees)?

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset of posterior shoulder pain and weakness. Physical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle with normal supraspinatus bulk and strength. Where is the most likely site of nerve compression?

A 24-year-old hockey player presents with groin pain with hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs are ordered to evaluate for femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). An elevated alpha angle is indicative of which morphology, and on what view is it best measured?

A 19-year-old female dancer complains of a visible, audible 'snap' over the lateral aspect of her hip when moving from flexion to extension. She has tenderness over the greater trochanter. Which structures are most commonly involved in this condition?

During a rotator cuff repair, an understanding of the vascular supply is essential. The 'critical zone' of the supraspinatus tendon, where tears most commonly initiate, is primarily located at what distance proximal to its insertion on the greater tuberosity?

A 26-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He exhibits a GIRD (glenohumeral internal rotation deficit) of 25 degrees. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of internal impingement in this patient?

When performing a transtibial posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction, the graft is subjected to high stress at the acute angle where it exits the posterior tibial tunnel and heads anteriorly to the femoral footprint. This phenomenon is known as the 'killer turn'. Which surgical technique was developed specifically to avoid this issue?

A 50-year-old female presents with acute medial knee pain after feeling a 'pop' while squatting. An MRI is obtained.

Imaging confirms a medial meniscus posterior root tear. What is the primary biomechanical consequence of this specific injury if left untreated?

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability despite a prior arthroscopic Bankart repair. A revision MRI arthrogram demonstrates a 'J-sign' in the axillary pouch rather than the normal U-shape.

Which of the following describes the pathology?

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. The subscapularis is completely intact. He demonstrates a lag sign and pseudoparalysis of external rotation, but maintains forward elevation to 130 degrees. Which of the following tendon transfers is biomechanically optimal to restore external rotation in this patient?

A 28-year-old patient is scheduled for an osteochondral allograft (OCA) reconstruction for a 4x4 cm focal symptomatic chondral defect on the medial femoral condyle. To maximize chondrocyte viability at the time of implantation, what is the optimal storage protocol for the allograft?

A 18-year-old female with recurrent patellar instability is undergoing medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction. When identifying the femoral attachment radiographically using the Schottle point, where should the origin be placed on a true lateral radiograph?

A 25-year-old male presents with symptomatic instability 3 years after primary ACL reconstruction. Radiographs and CT scan demonstrate a well-placed femoral tunnel but substantial widening of the tibial tunnel, measuring 16 mm in diameter. What is the most appropriate management strategy?

A 22-year-old collegiate hockey player complains of insidious onset anterior groin pain, worse with deep hip flexion. Physical exam reveals a positive FADIR test. Plain radiographs, including a Dunn lateral view, demonstrate an abnormal head-neck junction. An alpha angle greater than what threshold is highly indicative of symptomatic Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)?

A 26-year-old baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain that is most severe during the late cocking phase of throwing. He has a 20-degree glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD). Arthroscopic evaluation reveals 'internal impingement.' Which structures are pathologically abutting each other in this condition?

A 45-year-old male trips and falls on his flexed knee while playing basketball. He is unable to actively perform a straight leg raise. Lateral radiographs of the knee demonstrate significant patella baja (infera). What is the most likely diagnosis?