5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 25-year-old elite overhead throwing athlete undergoes arthroscopy for a symptomatic Type II SLAP tear that failed conservative management. What is the pathomechanical basis of this injury during the late cocking phase of throwing?

A 22-year-old overhead throwing athlete complains of deep shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MR arthrography reveals a Type II Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior (SLAP) tear. Which of the following best describes the specific anatomical pathology of a Type II SLAP lesion?

In a cruciate-retaining (CR) total knee arthroplasty, the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is preserved. If the PCL is left excessively tight during the procedure, what kinematic abnormality is most likely to occur?

In revision TKA for severe AORI Type 2b or 3 metaphyseal bone defects, highly porous metaphyseal titanium cones are increasingly utilized. What is their primary biomechanical and biologic advantage over standard structural allografts?

A 22-year-old football player sustains recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Preoperative imaging

reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention to minimize recurrence?

A 30-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with preserved supraspinatus bulk. Where is the most likely site of nerve compression?

A 45-year-old male presents to the ED after a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. His shoulder is locked in internal rotation and he is unable to externally rotate. Radiographs show a 'lightbulb' sign. Which of the following associated injuries is most frequently seen in this condition?

A 55-year-old laborer has a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has an intact subscapularis and a negative hornblower's sign. He struggles primarily with loss of active external rotation and elevation. Which tendon transfer is most historically validated and appropriate for this specific deficit pattern?

A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He exhibits a GIRD (glenohumeral internal rotation deficit) of 25 degrees. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism of his shoulder pain?

A 55-year-old male sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation. Post-reduction, he has numbness over the lateral aspect of his shoulder and inability to actively abduct his arm. An EMG performed at 3 weeks shows fibrillation potentials in the deltoid. What is the most appropriate management?

A 40-year-old male presents with severe, acute-onset right shoulder pain that lasted for two weeks, awakened him from sleep, and has now transitioned into profound weakness of shoulder abduction and external rotation. He reports a recent viral respiratory illness. MRI of the shoulder is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 31-year-old male volleyball player presents with insidious onset of right shoulder weakness. Physical exam reveals notable atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa but normal bulk of the supraspinatus. External rotation strength is significantly decreased, while abduction strength is preserved. What is the most likely etiology of this patient's condition?

The Latarjet procedure involves transfer of the coracoid process to the anterior glenoid neck. During the approach, the subscapularis muscle is often split longitudinally. Which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury if this split is extended too far medially?

A 55-year-old male presents with a massive, irreparable tear of the subscapularis tendon following a failed repair. He complains of debilitating anterior pain, has a positive belly-press test, and increased passive external rotation. Which tendon transfer is most appropriate to restore anterior shoulder function?

A 48-year-old manual laborer has a massive, retracted, and fatty-infiltrated tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. He lacks active external rotation and has a positive external rotation lag sign, but has intact subscapularis function and no significant glenohumeral arthritis. Which tendon transfer is most indicated for this patient?

A 65-year-old female sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation. After successful closed reduction in the emergency department, post-reduction radiographs reveal a concentric glenohumeral joint but a displaced greater tuberosity fracture with 7 mm of superior displacement. What is the most appropriate management?

A 40-year-old male presents to the ER after a generalized seizure. He holds his right arm firmly in internal rotation and adduction. Radiographs confirm a posterior glenohumeral dislocation. After closed reduction, a CT scan shows a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 25% of the humeral head articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

In a 65-year-old sedentary patient undergoing arthroscopic rotator cuff repair, a severely frayed and subluxated long head of the biceps tendon is noted. The surgeon decides to perform a biceps tenotomy rather than a tenodesis. Compared to tenodesis, which of the following is the most likely outcome of tenotomy?

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Physical examination reveals a glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees compared to the contralateral side. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of his internal impingement?