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Question 6001

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 28-year-old athlete undergoes an open repair of a completely ruptured pectoralis major tendon. The surgeon notes that the tendon consists of two primary heads with a unique insertion pattern. Which of the following accurately describes the anatomic insertion of the pectoralis major tendon onto the humerus?

. The sternal head inserts superficial and distal to the clavicular head.
. The clavicular head inserts deep and proximal to the sternal head.
. The sternal head twists 180 degrees to insert deep and proximal to the clavicular head.
. The clavicular head twists 90 degrees to insert deep and distal to the sternal head.
. Both heads fuse seamlessly to form a single untwisted layer inserting on the lesser tuberosity.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The sternal head inserts superficial and distal to the clavicular head.


Explanation

The pectoralis major tendon twists on itself prior to insertion. The sternal head twists 180 degrees so that its inferior fibers insert superiorly and deep, while the clavicular head does not twist and inserts anteriorly (superficial) and distally.

Question 6002

Topic: Knee Sports

A 19-year-old football player undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. The surgeon wishes to replicate the native anatomy of the ACL bundles. Which statement correctly describes the femoral footprint of the ACL bundles with the knee in extension?

. The anteromedial (AM) bundle originates distal and anterior to the posterolateral (PL) bundle.
. The anteromedial (AM) bundle originates proximal and posterior to the posterolateral (PL) bundle.
. Both bundles originate vertically with the PL bundle being strictly superior.
. The PL bundle originates high in the notch, while the AM bundle originates on the medial condyle.
. The bundles run perfectly parallel without crossing at any degree of flexion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The anteromedial (AM) bundle originates distal and anterior to the posterolateral (PL) bundle.


Explanation

On the lateral femoral condyle, the anteromedial (AM) bundle originates high (proximal) and posterior, whereas the posterolateral (PL) bundle originates lower (distal) and anterior. The bundles cross as the knee moves into flexion.

Question 6003

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 25-year-old male sustains a posterior shoulder dislocation resulting in isolated weakness in external rotation and a sensory deficit over the lateral deltoid. Which of the following defines the borders of the anatomic space through which the injured nerve passes?

. Superior: Teres minor, Inferior: Teres major, Medial: Long head of triceps, Lateral: Surgical neck of humerus
. Superior: Teres major, Inferior: Teres minor, Medial: Long head of triceps, Lateral: Surgical neck of humerus
. Superior: Teres minor, Inferior: Teres major, Medial: Surgical neck of humerus, Lateral: Long head of triceps
. Superior: Supraspinatus, Inferior: Teres minor, Medial: Long head of triceps, Lateral: Coracoid process
. Superior: Teres major, Inferior: Latissimus dorsi, Medial: Short head of biceps, Lateral: Humeral shaft

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior: Teres minor, Inferior: Teres major, Medial: Long head of triceps, Lateral: Surgical neck of humerus


Explanation

The axillary nerve passes through the quadrilateral space. Its borders are the teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of the triceps (medial), and surgical neck of the humerus (lateral).

Question 6004

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Anterolateral and anteromedial portals are standard in anterior ankle arthroscopy. Establishing the anterolateral portal places which of the following nerves at highest risk of iatrogenic injury?

. Sural nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Tibial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sural nerve


Explanation

The anterolateral portal is established just lateral to the peroneus tertius tendon. This location places the terminal branches of the superficial peroneal nerve at high risk if not identified by transillumination.

Question 6005

Topic: Knee Sports

Anatomic ACL reconstruction relies on identifying the femoral footprint. The lateral intercondylar ridge (Resident's ridge) serves as a key surgical landmark.

Where is the native ACL femoral footprint located relative to this ridge when the knee is viewed at 90 degrees of flexion?

. Anterior to the ridge
. Posterior to the ridge
. Proximal to the ridge
. Superior to the ridge
. Directly on the ridge

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior to the ridge


Explanation

The native ACL footprint is posterior to the lateral intercondylar ridge (Resident's ridge) and anterior to the lateral bifurcate ridge (which separates the AM and PL bundles) when the knee is viewed in 90 degrees of flexion. Placing the tunnel anterior to Resident's ridge results in a non-anatomic, vertical graft that fails to control rotational stability.

Question 6006

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 24-year-old athlete undergoes an isolated Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL) reconstruction using a double-bundle technique.

To accurately recreate the biomechanics of the native PCL, at what degree of knee flexion should the anterolateral (AL) and posteromedial (PM) bundles be tensioned and fixed, respectively?

. AL at 0 degrees, PM at 90 degrees
. AL at 90 degrees, PM at 0 degrees
. AL at 30 degrees, PM at 30 degrees
. AL at 90 degrees, PM at 90 degrees
. AL at 120 degrees, PM at 30 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. AL at 0 degrees, PM at 90 degrees


Explanation

The anterolateral (AL) bundle is the larger bundle of the PCL and is tightest in flexion; it is traditionally tensioned and fixed at 90 degrees of flexion. The posteromedial (PM) bundle is tightest in extension and is tensioned and fixed at 0 to 30 degrees of flexion (near extension).

Question 6007

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with significant glenoid bone loss, the coracoid process is transferred to the anterior glenoid.

Which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury during the medial retraction of the conjoined tendon and subsequent screw fixation?

. Axillary nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Radial nerve
. Median nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve typically enters the coracobrachialis muscle 3-8 cm distal to the tip of the coracoid. Retraction of the conjoined tendon medially during the Latarjet procedure places significant traction on this nerve, making it the most commonly injured neurologic structure during this operation.

Question 6008

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old hockey player presents with anterior groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Imaging reveals Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI).

During hip arthroscopy, which of the following intra-articular pathologic findings is most commonly associated with isolated Cam impingement?

. Global pincer-type labral ossification
. Posterior-inferior labral tearing
. Anterobasal labral tearing with adjacent articular cartilage delamination
. Isolated ligamentum teres avulsion
. Medial acetabular wall bone loss

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Global pincer-type labral ossification


Explanation

Cam impingement is caused by an aspherical femoral head-neck junction creating sheer forces on the anterosuperior acetabular rim during flexion and internal rotation. This reliably leads to chondral delamination (the 'wave sign') and tearing of the labrum at the chondrolabral junction in the anterosuperior quadrant.

Question 6009

Topic: Knee Sports

During a Medial Patellofemoral Ligament (MPFL) reconstruction for recurrent patellar instability, the surgeon inadvertently places the femoral tunnel proximal to the anatomic insertion site.

What is the expected biomechanical consequence during knee range of motion?

. The graft will be loose in flexion and tight in extension
. The graft will be tight in flexion and tight in extension
. The graft will be tight in flexion and loose in extension
. The graft will be loose in flexion and loose in extension
. The graft will maintain isometric tension throughout the arc of motion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The graft will be loose in flexion and tight in extension


Explanation

If the femoral tunnel in an MPFL reconstruction is placed too proximal, the distance between the patellar and femoral attachments increases as the knee flexes. This causes the graft to become excessively tight in flexion (leading to loss of flexion and medial patellofemoral overload) and relatively loose in extension.

Question 6010

Topic: Knee Sports

A 30-year-old runner has an isolated, full-thickness 3.5 cm^2 chondral defect on the medial femoral condyle. The surgeon considers Matrix-induced Autologous Chondrocyte Implantation (MACI).

Which of the following represents an absolute or strong relative contraindication to MACI for this patient?

. Age under 40 years
. Defect size greater than 3 cm^2
. Corresponding bipolar 'kissing' lesion on the medial tibial plateau
. Intact meniscal volume in the medial compartment
. Location of the defect on the weight-bearing surface

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Age under 40 years


Explanation

MACI is indicated for symptomatic, unipolar, full-thickness cartilage defects in the knee in young, active patients. Bipolar ('kissing') lesions, uncorrected malalignment, uncorrected ligamentous instability, and advanced osteoarthritis are significant contraindications due to unacceptably high failure rates.

Question 6011

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old overhead athlete presents with posterior shoulder pain and profound weakness in external rotation. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch.

Which physical exam finding and associated intra-articular pathology is most likely present?

. Weakness in internal rotation; anterior labral tear
. Weakness in abduction; superior labral tear
. Isolated weakness in external rotation; posterior labral tear
. Weakness in both abduction and external rotation; anterior labral tear
. Scapular winging; SLAP lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Weakness in internal rotation; anterior labral tear


Explanation

A cyst at the spinoglenoid notch typically compresses the suprascapular nerve after it has innervated the supraspinatus, leading to isolated infraspinatus denervation and isolated external rotation weakness. Spinoglenoid cysts are highly associated with posterior labral tears, through which synovial fluid escapes via a one-way valve mechanism.

Question 6012

Topic: Knee Sports

A 28-year-old football player sustains a multiligamentous knee injury. Physical exam reveals a positive posterior drawer test and increased external tibial rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. However, at 90 degrees of knee flexion, the external tibial rotation is symmetric bilaterally. What is the most likely injury pattern?

. Isolated Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL) tear
. Isolated Posterolateral Corner (PLC) injury
. Combined PCL and PLC injury
. Combined ACL and PLC injury
. Isolated Posteromedial Corner (PMC) injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL) tear


Explanation

The Dial test measures external tibial rotation at 30 and 90 degrees of flexion. An increase of >10 degrees of external rotation at 30 degrees only indicates an isolated PLC injury. An increase at both 30 and 90 degrees indicates a combined PLC and PCL injury.

Question 6013

Topic: Knee Sports

A 14-year-old female gymnast complains of lateral elbow pain, clicking, and a loss of 15 degrees of extension. Radiographs and MRI demonstrate a 12mm osteochondral defect of the capitellum with subchondral fluid and a loose cartilaginous flap.

What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Non-operative management with 6 weeks of immobilization
. Arthroscopic in situ drilling of the capitellum
. Ulnar collateral ligament reconstruction
. Arthroscopic debridement, loose body removal, and microfracture
. Open reduction and internal fixation with headless compression screws

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Non-operative management with 6 weeks of immobilization


Explanation

Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the capitellum affects young throwing athletes and gymnasts. Indications for surgery include unstable lesions (fluid behind the fragment, cartilaginous flap, loose bodies) or failure of non-operative management. For fragmented, unsalvageable lesions, arthroscopic debridement and marrow stimulation (microfracture) is indicated. In situ drilling is reserved for intact lesions.

Question 6014

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old female with an isolated ACL deficiency and genu varum is scheduled for an ACL reconstruction and an opening-wedge high tibial osteotomy (HTO). What is the potential biomechanical consequence of a standard medial opening-wedge HTO on the sagittal plane of the knee, and how does it affect the ACL graft?

. Increases posterior tibial slope, which increases anterior tibial translation and strain on the ACL graft
. Decreases posterior tibial slope, which increases anterior tibial translation and strain on the ACL graft
. Increases posterior tibial slope, which decreases anterior tibial translation and protects the ACL graft
. Decreases posterior tibial slope, which decreases anterior tibial translation and protects the ACL graft
. Does not affect sagittal plane slope, acting only in the coronal plane

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increases posterior tibial slope, which increases anterior tibial translation and strain on the ACL graft


Explanation

A standard medial opening-wedge HTO tends to inadvertently increase the posterior tibial slope because the anterior aspect of the proximal tibia is narrower than the posterior aspect. An increased posterior slope exacerbates anterior tibial translation during weight-bearing, placing higher stress on an ACL graft. Surgeons must intentionally adjust the gap to avoid this in ACL-deficient knees.

Question 6015

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

In overhead throwing athletes, a Type II SLAP tear is often attributed to the 'peel-back' mechanism.

During which phase of the throwing motion does the maximal peel-back force occur on the superior labrum?

. Wind-up
. Early cocking
. Late cocking / maximal external rotation
. Acceleration
. Follow-through

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wind-up


Explanation

The 'peel-back' mechanism occurs in the late cocking phase of throwing when the shoulder is in maximum abduction and external rotation. In this position, the biceps vector shifts posteriorly, creating a torsional force at the biceps anchor that twists and peels back the superior labrum from the glenoid rim.

Question 6016

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 9-year-old Tanner stage 1 male sustains a complete, mid-substance ACL tear.

A physeal-sparing extra-articular reconstruction is planned. Which structure is traditionally utilized and routed over the 'over-the-top' position to reconstruct the ACL without violating the open physes?

. Bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft
. Quad tendon autograft with bone block
. Iliotibial (IT) band
. Semitendinosus and Gracilis with an all-epiphyseal tunnel
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL) transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft


Explanation

In very young children with wide-open physes (Tanner stage 1), extra-articular physeal-sparing techniques are preferred to prevent growth arrest. The classic physeal-sparing technique (modified MacIntosh or Micheli procedure) utilizes a strip of the Iliotibial (IT) band routed through the 'over-the-top' position on the femur and under the intermeniscal ligament, entirely avoiding the physes.

Question 6017

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 65-year-old manual laborer presents with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear (supraspinatus and infraspinatus) with an intact subscapularis and functional deltoid. He lacks active external rotation (positive hornblower's sign). Which tendon transfer is most biomechanically appropriate to restore external rotation in this patient?

. Pectoralis major transfer
. Lower trapezius transfer
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Pronator teres transfer
. Subscapularis split transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis major transfer


Explanation

For irreparable posterosuperior cuff tears with profound external rotation weakness, the lower trapezius transfer has a line of pull that closely replicates the native infraspinatus and allows for in-phase firing, making it biomechanically superior for restoring active external rotation. The latissimus dorsi is an internal rotator and requires out-of-phase retraining.

Question 6018

Topic: Knee Sports
A 23-year-old professional soccer player presents with anterior knee pain and swelling. MRI reveals a 4.5 cm² full-thickness osteochondral defect with a 6 mm deep subchondral bone cyst on the weight-bearing surface of the medial femoral condyle. He has previously undergone a failed microfracture procedure. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical treatment?
. Repeat microfracture
. Osteochondral autograft transfer (OATS)
. Matrix-induced autologous chondrocyte implantation (MACI)
. Fresh osteochondral allograft transplantation
. Partial medial meniscectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fresh osteochondral allograft transplantation


Explanation

Fresh osteochondral allograft (OCA) transplantation is the treatment of choice for large (>2-3 cm²) osteochondral defects, especially when associated with subchondral bone loss or cysts. OATS is typically reserved for smaller defects (<2 cm²) due to donor site morbidity. MACI is excellent for large (>2 cm²) purely chondral defects but does not address significant subchondral bone loss unless performed as a 'sandwich' technique with bone grafting, making OCA the more direct and preferred single-stage option for large bony defects.

Question 6019

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 23-year-old professional soccer player presents with anterior knee pain and swelling. MRI reveals a 4.5 cm² full-thickness osteochondral defect with a 6 mm deep subchondral bone cyst on the weight-bearing surface of the medial femoral condyle. He has previously undergone a failed microfracture procedure. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical treatment?

. Repeat microfracture
. Osteochondral autograft transfer (OATS)
. Matrix-induced autologous chondrocyte implantation (MACI)
. Fresh osteochondral allograft transplantation
. Partial medial meniscectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Repeat microfracture


Explanation

Fresh osteochondral allograft (OCA) transplantation is the treatment of choice for large (>2-3 cm²) osteochondral defects, especially when associated with subchondral bone loss or cysts. OATS is typically reserved for smaller defects (<2 cm²) due to donor site morbidity. MACI is excellent for large (>2 cm²) purely chondral defects but does not address significant subchondral bone loss unless performed as a 'sandwich' technique with bone grafting, making OCA the more direct and preferred single-stage option for large bony defects.

Question 6020

Topic: Knee Sports

During the evaluation of a patient with a multiligamentous knee injury, the examiner performs the Dial test. The test demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation of the tibia relative to the femur at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. At 90 degrees of knee flexion, the external rotation is symmetric bilaterally. This clinical finding most likely indicates an isolated injury to which of the following?

. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Posterolateral corner (PLC)
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL)
. Combined PCL and PLC

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)


Explanation

The Dial test evaluates external rotation of the tibia. Asymmetry of >10-15 degrees compared to the normal knee indicates injury. An increase in external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion, but symmetric at 90 degrees, indicates an isolated injury to the posterolateral corner (PLC). If the increase is present at both 30 and 90 degrees, it indicates a combined injury to the PLC and the PCL.