5. Sports Medicine MCQs

Figure 1 shows an AP pelvis radiograph of a 30-year-old man complaining of deep groin pain. An alpha angle of 65 degrees is measured on the lateral view. Which physical exam maneuver is most likely to reproduce this patient's pain?

A 28-year-old male presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Imaging demonstrates a decreased anterior head-neck offset with a prominent alpha angle.

What is the primary pathomechanism of labral injury in this condition?

Which of the following radiographic findings is most characteristic of Pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement?

A 25-year-old male athlete presents with deep groin pain worsened by hip flexion and internal rotation. A cross-table lateral radiograph demonstrates an alpha angle of 65 degrees. What is the primary pathomechanical process occurring in this patient's hip?

A 42-year-old man presents with deep groin pain worsened by deep hip flexion and internal rotation. AP pelvis radiograph demonstrates a prominent crossover sign and a lateral center edge angle of 45 degrees. Alpha angle is 45 degrees. Which of the following best describes the pathomechanics of his condition?

A 24-year-old male athlete presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. An AP pelvis radiograph demonstrates a pistol grip deformity of the proximal femur. Which of the following radiographic parameters is most likely to be abnormal in this patient?

Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) is anatomically characterized by a reduced head-neck offset. During hip flexion, this morphology most commonly causes which of the following specific intra-articular injury patterns?

Which of the following radiographic findings is most characteristic of a pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)?

A 24-year-old male hockey player presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs show an alpha angle of 70 degrees on the lateral view. The pathophysiologic mechanism of joint damage in this condition primarily involves:

A 25-year-old male presents with deep groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs reveal an alpha angle of 70 degrees, consistent with a cam lesion. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of joint damage in this condition?

A 35-year-old active male presents with symptoms of femoroacetabular impingement. Radiographs demonstrate an alpha angle of 75 degrees and decreased femoral head-neck offset. In this patient's pathomorphology, what is the most common pattern of intra-articular damage?

A 26-year-old male professional soccer player sustains an acute Zone 2 (Jones) fracture of the proximal fifth metatarsal. He wishes to return to play as safely and rapidly as possible. What is the most appropriate management?

A 24-year-old male is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. On presentation, his blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg and heart rate is 50 bpm. His extremities are warm and well-perfused. Which of the following is the primary pathophysiological mechanism for his vital sign abnormalities?

A 24-year-old athlete sustains an external rotation injury to the ankle. Weight-bearing radiographs are normal. MRI shows a partial tear of the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL). What is the next most appropriate step in management?

A 21-year-old football player sustains a hyperextension injury to his first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. MRI demonstrates a complete tear of the plantar plate with proximal retraction of the sesamoids. What is the most appropriate treatment?

A 28-year-old woman has persistent anterolateral ankle pain after a severe sprain 6 months ago. MRI shows a 12-mm osteochondral lesion of the anterolateral talar dome with intact cartilage but subchondral cystic changes. After failed conservative treatment, what is the best surgical option?

A 25-year-old professional basketball player complains of lateral foot pain for 4 weeks. Radiographs show a transverse fracture at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal with intramedullary sclerosis. What is the most appropriate treatment?

A 25-year-old male undergoes arthroscopic evaluation for an osteochondral lesion of the medial talar dome. The lesion is 12 mm x 10 mm. The articular cartilage is completely intact but soft upon probing. What is the recommended treatment?

A 25-year-old soccer player has persistent ankle pain following a sprain 1 year ago. MRI demonstrates an osteochondral lesion on the medial talar dome measuring 1.8 square cm. Previous conservative management has failed. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 42-year-old recreational athlete sustains an acute Achilles tendon rupture. After discussing operative and nonoperative management, he elects for nonoperative treatment. Which of the following rehabilitation protocols provides rerupture rates most comparable to operative management?