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Question 5441

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old male complains of knee instability after receiving a blow to the anteromedial tibia. Physical examination reveals an isolated increase in external rotation of 15 degrees compared to the contralateral knee when tested at 30 degrees of knee flexion. There is no asymmetry in external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. Which structure is most likely injured?

. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Popliteofibular ligament
. Anterolateral ligament
. Medial patellofemoral ligament
. Superficial medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Popliteofibular ligament


Explanation

An isolated increase in external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion, with symmetric rotation at 90 degrees, indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. The popliteofibular ligament is a primary static stabilizer of the PLC.

Question 5442

Topic: Knee Sports

A 52-year-old male presents with acute medial knee pain after rising from a deep squat. MRI reveals a complete radial tear of the medial meniscus posterior root. Biomechanically, this injury is most similar to which of the following conditions?

. Total medial meniscectomy
. Anterior cruciate ligament deficiency
. Isolated medial collateral ligament tear
. Bucket-handle meniscus tear
. Chondromalacia patellae

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total medial meniscectomy


Explanation

A complete tear of the posterior root of the medial meniscus disrupts the circumferential hoop stresses, leading to extrusion of the meniscus. Biomechanically, this results in peak contact pressures equivalent to a total meniscectomy.

Question 5443

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan demonstrates 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following surgical interventions provides the most reliable long-term stability for this patient?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open capsular shift
. Coracoid transfer to the anterior glenoid (Latarjet)
. Remplissage procedure
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coracoid transfer to the anterior glenoid (Latarjet)


Explanation

In the setting of critical glenoid bone loss (>20-25%), soft tissue stabilization (Bankart repair) has an unacceptably high failure rate. The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) restores the bony arc and provides a sling effect via the conjoint tendon.

Question 5444

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old active laborer presents with chronic, severe shoulder weakness. MRI demonstrates a massive, retracted, and fatty-infiltrated tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons. The subscapularis and teres minor are intact. He has a normal coracoacromial arch and no significant glenohumeral arthritis. Which tendon transfer is most appropriate to restore external rotation?

. Pectoralis major transfer
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Lower trapezius transfer
. Serratus anterior transfer
. Rhomboid major transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lower trapezius transfer


Explanation

For isolated irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears, a lower trapezius transfer closely mimics the line of pull of the infraspinatus to restore external rotation. Latissimus dorsi transfer is also an option but has a less anatomic line of pull.

Question 5445

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 42-year-old construction worker presents with persistent deep shoulder pain. MRI arthrogram reveals an isolated Type II Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior (SLAP) tear. Nonoperative management has failed. What is the most appropriate surgical management to minimize postoperative stiffness and allow a return to heavy labor?

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair with suture anchors
. Biceps tenotomy
. Subpectoral biceps tenodesis
. Arthroscopic debridement of the labrum alone
. Diagnostic arthroscopy with no intervention

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subpectoral biceps tenodesis


Explanation

In patients over 35-40 years old, especially manual laborers, SLAP repair is associated with a high rate of postoperative stiffness and persistent pain. Biceps tenodesis provides more reliable pain relief and functional recovery.

Question 5446

Topic: Knee Sports

A 45-year-old female presents with acute onset of medial knee pain after squatting. MRI shows a complete radial tear of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus at its root attachment. Which of the following best describes the biomechanical consequence of this injury?

. Increased contact area and decreased peak contact pressure
. Decreased contact area and increased peak contact pressure
. Complete loss of medial compartment stability requiring collateral ligament repair
. Increased lateral compartment peak contact pressure
. Decreased medial compartment anterior translation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased contact area and increased peak contact pressure


Explanation

Medial meniscal root tears severely disrupt hoop stresses, functioning biomechanically like a total meniscectomy. This results in decreased contact area and significantly increased peak contact pressures in the medial compartment.

Question 5447

Topic: Knee Sports
A 16-year-old female experiences recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. She has failed conservative management. Imaging reveals a tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance of 14 mm, normal patellar height, and a dysplastic trochlea. Reconstruction of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) is planned. The femoral footprint of the MPFL is anatomically located:
. Anterior to the adductor tubercle and proximal to the medial epicondyle
. Posterior to the adductor tubercle and distal to the medial epicondyle
. Distal to the adductor tubercle and posterior to the medial epicondyle
. Anterior to the medial epicondyle and distal to the adductor tubercle
. At the center of the medial epicondyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior to the adductor tubercle and proximal to the medial epicondyle


Explanation

The Schöttle point for the femoral origin of the MPFL is located anterior to the adductor tubercle, proximal to the medial epicondyle, and distal to the medial physis.

Question 5448

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old competitive rugby player sustains his third anterior shoulder dislocation. CT scan with 3D reconstruction demonstrates 25% glenoid bone loss. A Latarjet procedure is performed. The classic "sling effect" of the Latarjet procedure is provided by which of the following structures?

. Coracobrachialis and short head of the biceps
. Long head of the biceps and subscapularis
. Conjoint tendon and lower subscapularis
. Pectoralis minor and conjoint tendon
. Coracoacromial ligament and capsule

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Conjoint tendon and lower subscapularis


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure provides stability via the bone block, the capsular repair, and the "sling effect" of the conjoint tendon compressing the inferior subscapularis and capsule when the arm is abducted and externally rotated.

Question 5449

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

When counseling a 17-year-old female soccer player regarding ACL reconstruction, which of the following is true comparing bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft to hamstring autograft?

. Hamstring autografts have a higher rate of postoperative anterior knee pain.
. BPTB autografts have lower structural stiffness than native ACL.
. Hamstring autografts have a higher rate of revision in young, highly active females.
. BPTB autografts demonstrate slower biological integration into the bone tunnels.
. Native ACL has a higher ultimate load to failure than a 10mm BPTB graft.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hamstring autografts have a higher rate of revision in young, highly active females.


Explanation

Multiple registries and studies have demonstrated that hamstring autografts carry a higher failure and revision rate compared to BPTB autografts in young, highly active patients.

Question 5450

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 24-year-old male hockey player presents with right groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs reveal a crossover sign, prominent ischial spines, and an alpha angle of 65 degrees. During hip arthroscopy, a cam lesion is resected. Care must be taken to avoid over-resection of the femoral neck to prevent which of the following complications?

. Femoral neck fracture
. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
. Sciatic nerve palsy
. Heterotopic ossification
. Labral detachment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral neck fracture


Explanation

Over-resection of a cam deformity (>30% of the femoral neck diameter) significantly alters load-bearing mechanics and increases the risk of a post-operative femoral neck fracture.

Question 5451

Topic: Knee Sports

A 28-year-old male sustains a traumatic knee dislocation. Following reduction, his pedal pulses are symmetric, but he has an inability to dorsiflex his ankle or extend his toes. Which of the following ligamentous injuries is most commonly associated with this neurologic deficit?

. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL)
. Posterolateral corner (PLC)
. Medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral corner (PLC)


Explanation

Common peroneal nerve palsy is highly associated with posterolateral corner (PLC) injuries due to the anatomic proximity of the nerve to the fibular head and the severe varus/hyperextension traction forces involved.

Question 5452

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 12-year-old male presents with non-specific knee pain. Radiographs demonstrate an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion of the medial femoral condyle. The physes are widely open. MRI shows no fluid behind the lesion. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Arthroscopic microfracture
. Diagnostic arthroscopy and drilling
. Non-weight bearing in a cylinder cast for 6 weeks
. Cessation of sports and physical therapy
. Osteochondral autograft transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cessation of sports and physical therapy


Explanation

In a skeletally immature patient with a stable OCD lesion (intact cartilage with no subchondral fluid on MRI), the initial management is nonoperative, primarily consisting of activity restriction and cessation of sports.

Question 5453

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 40-year-old male sustains a knee injury while jumping. On exam, he has a palpable defect proximal to the patella and cannot perform a straight leg raise. Lateral radiographs would most likely demonstrate which of the following?

. Patella alta
. Patella baja
. Normal patellar height
. Fragmentation of the tibial tubercle
. Joint space narrowing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patella baja


Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for a quadriceps tendon rupture (defect proximal to the patella). Disruption of the quadriceps tendon allows the intact patellar tendon to pull the patella distally, resulting in patella baja on lateral radiographs.

Question 5454

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 10-year-old Tanner stage 1 male sustains a complete mid-substance anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. Which surgical reconstruction technique minimizes the risk of physeal arrest while providing adequate stability?

. Transphyseal hamstring reconstruction
. Iliotibial band extra-articular tenodesis
. All-epiphyseal hamstring reconstruction
. Bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft reconstruction
. Primary repair with suture augmentation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. All-epiphyseal hamstring reconstruction


Explanation

In Tanner 1 patients, an all-epiphyseal technique avoids crossing the open physes entirely. This minimizes the risk of iatrogenic growth arrest compared to transphyseal methods.

Question 5455

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old female gymnast presents with recurrent bilateral shoulder pain and subluxation associated with generalized ligamentous laxity. After 6 months of dedicated physical therapy, she continues to have disabling instability in her dominant shoulder. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Arthroscopic capsular plication
. Open Latarjet procedure
. Remplissage procedure
. Subpectoral biceps tenodesis
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic capsular plication


Explanation

Arthroscopic capsular plication is the surgical treatment of choice for multidirectional instability that fails a prolonged course of physical therapy. It effectively reduces capsular redundancy without the morbidity of open shifts.

Question 5456

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player has sustained three recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. CT scan with 3D reconstruction reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with Remplissage
. Humeral head osteochondral allograft
. Putti-Platt procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open Latarjet procedure


Explanation

Substantial anterior glenoid bone loss (>20%) in a collision athlete is a strong indication for a bony augmentation procedure like the Latarjet. Isolated soft tissue repairs have an unacceptably high failure rate in this setting.

Question 5457

Topic: Knee Sports

A 14-year-old female gymnast complains of lateral elbow pain, clicking, and a 15-degree extension block. MRI demonstrates a 12 mm unstable osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion of the capitellum with loose bodies. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic drilling of the intact lesion in situ
. Open reduction and internal fixation of the capitellum
. Arthroscopic loose body removal and microfracture of the defect
. Total elbow arthroplasty
. Ulnar nerve transposition

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic loose body removal and microfracture of the defect


Explanation

In an unstable capitellar OCD lesion with loose bodies and a defect, the standard of care is arthroscopic removal of the loose body followed by debridement and microfracture of the base. Drilling in situ is reserved for stable, intact lesions.

Question 5458

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 35-year-old recreational basketball player feels a 'pop' in his knee while landing from a jump and cannot actively perform a straight leg raise. Lateral radiographs show patella baja. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

. Patellar tendon rupture
. Quadriceps tendon rupture
. Tibial tubercle avulsion fracture
. Anterior cruciate ligament tear
. Patellar sleeve fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quadriceps tendon rupture


Explanation

Quadriceps tendon ruptures disrupt the superior pull on the patella, resulting in a low-riding patella (patella baja) on lateral radiographs. In contrast, patellar tendon ruptures lead to patella alta.

Question 5459

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old soccer player sustains a hyperextension varus knee injury. Examination shows a positive dial test at 30 degrees of flexion, but symmetric rotation compared to the contralateral knee at 90 degrees. What isolated structure is most likely injured?

. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Posterolateral corner
. Medial collateral ligament
. Popliteus tendon only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral corner


Explanation

Increased external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion with normal rotation at 90 degrees indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. Combined PCL and PLC injuries show increased rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.

Question 5460

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 20-year-old female dancer complains of an audible, painless snapping on the lateral aspect of her hip when she flexes and extends it. Ultrasound demonstrates a thick band of tissue snapping over the greater trochanter. What is the initial treatment of choice?

. Endoscopic iliotibial band release
. Open trochanteric bursectomy
. Formal physical therapy focusing on stretching the iliotibial band
. Corticosteroid injection into the hip joint
. Fractional lengthening of the iliopsoas tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Formal physical therapy focusing on stretching the iliotibial band


Explanation

External snapping hip syndrome is caused by the iliotibial band snapping over the greater trochanter. It is initially managed non-operatively with stretching, core strengthening, and activity modification.