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Question 521

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 24-year-old male is undergoing an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. A bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft is chosen. Compared to a multi-stranded hamstring autograft, the BPTB graft is statistically associated with a higher incidence of which postoperative complication?

. Graft failure and retear
. Anterior knee pain
. Deep surgical site infection
. Deep vein thrombosis
. Loss of knee flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior knee pain


Explanation

Bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autografts are associated with a higher rate of anterior knee pain and kneeling pain compared to hamstring autografts. Overall graft survival and functional stability rates are comparable between the two.

Question 522

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 22-year-old soccer player sustains a sudden twisting injury to the knee. MRI reveals an isolated, 1.5 cm longitudinal tear in the peripheral one-third of the medial meniscus. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic partial meniscectomy
. Arthroscopic meniscal repair
. Meniscal allograft transplantation
. Radiofrequency ablation of the meniscal tear
. Diagnostic arthroscopy without intervention

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic meniscal repair


Explanation

The peripheral one-third of the meniscus (the 'red-red' zone) has an excellent vascular supply. Longitudinal tears in this region have high healing rates and should be treated with meniscal repair to preserve joint biomechanics.

Question 523

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 20-year-old female soccer player undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. Which of the following complications is most specifically associated with this graft choice compared to hamstring autograft?

. Higher risk of graft rupture
. Anterior knee pain
. Decreased hamstring strength
. Saphenous nerve injury
. Increased risk of deep infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior knee pain


Explanation

Bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autografts are highly associated with donor site morbidity, specifically anterior knee pain and pain with kneeling. Hamstring autografts have a lower incidence of anterior knee pain but may lead to mild hamstring weakness.

Question 524

Topic: Knee Sports

Which of the following bundles of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is tightest in full knee extension and provides the primary restraint to anterior tibial translation at 0 to 20 degrees of flexion?

. Posterolateral bundle
. Anteromedial bundle
. Posteromedial bundle
. Anterolateral bundle
. Transverse intermeniscal ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral bundle


Explanation

The posterolateral (PL) bundle of the ACL is tight in extension and provides the primary restraint to anterior translation in early flexion. The anteromedial (AM) bundle becomes tight in flexion.

Question 525

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. An MRI arthrogram reveals a bony Bankart lesion with 25% glenoid bone loss. Which surgical procedure is most appropriate to restore stability?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Latarjet procedure
. Remplissage
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy
. Subscapularis advancement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latarjet procedure


Explanation

In patients with recurrent anterior instability and significant glenoid bone loss (typically greater than 20-25%), a coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure) is indicated. Soft tissue arthroscopic Bankart repair alone carries an unacceptably high failure rate in this setting.

Question 526

Topic: Knee Sports

A 24-year-old female soccer player sustains a non-contact pivoting injury to her left knee. MRI confirms an isolated anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. When performing an anatomic single-bundle ACL reconstruction, where should the femoral tunnel be positioned in relation to the lateral femoral condyle?

. High and anterior on the medial wall
. Low and posterior on the medial wall
. High and anterior on the lateral wall
. Low and posterior on the lateral wall of the notch
. Centered on the intercondylar roof

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Low and posterior on the medial wall


Explanation

The native ACL femoral footprint is located low and posterior on the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle within the notch. Anatomic tunnel placement in this location best restores anterior and rotational kinematics.

Question 527

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 22-year-old professional soccer player is choosing a graft for primary anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. If he selects a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft, he should be counseled about an increased risk of which of the following post-operative complications compared to hamstring autograft?

. Graft rupture
. Deep vein thrombosis
. Infection
. Anterior knee pain
. Hardware failure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior knee pain


Explanation

Bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autografts are associated with a higher incidence of anterior knee pain and donor-site morbidity compared to hamstring autografts. However, BPTB grafts generally provide excellent structural stability.

Question 528

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

When performing an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft, which of the following is the most frequently reported donor-site complication?

. Patellar fracture
. Patellar tendon rupture
. Anterior knee pain
. Infrapatellar branch of saphenous nerve neuroma
. Quadriceps weakness

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior knee pain


Explanation

Anterior knee pain, especially with kneeling, is the most common donor-site complication following BTB autograft harvest. While patellar fracture and tendon rupture can occur, they are significantly less frequent.

Question 529

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. An MRI arthrogram reveals an anterior labral tear and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following procedures specifically addresses the engaging Hill-Sachs defect?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Remplissage procedure
. Latarjet procedure
. Capsular shift
. Slap repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Remplissage procedure


Explanation

The Remplissage procedure involves tenodesis of the infraspinatus tendon and posterior capsule into the Hill-Sachs defect. This essentially converts an intra-articular defect to an extra-articular one, preventing it from engaging the anterior glenoid rim.

Question 530

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 12-year-old female soccer player sustains a non-contact pivoting injury to her knee, resulting in an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. She is Tanner stage 2 and has significant remaining growth. Which of the following surgical techniques poses the lowest risk of physeal arrest?

. Transphyseal reconstruction with a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft
. Iliotibial band extra-articular tenodesis (MacIntosh procedure)
. Transphyseal reconstruction using soft tissue autograft with suspensory fixation
. Epiphyseal-sparing reconstruction using an all-epiphyseal technique
. Primary ACL repair with suture augmentation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Epiphyseal-sparing reconstruction using an all-epiphyseal technique


Explanation

In a skeletally immature patient with significant remaining growth (Tanner stage 1 or 2), an all-epiphyseal or physeal-sparing ACL reconstruction technique avoids drilling across the open growth plates. This minimizes the risk of iatrogenic growth arrest or angular deformity.

Question 531

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 22-year-old female undergoes ACL reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft. Which of the following is the most frequent complication specific to this graft choice compared to a hamstring autograft?

. Graft failure
. Anterior knee pain
. Decreased hamstring strength
. Deep vein thrombosis
. Patellar tendon rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior knee pain


Explanation

The most common specific complication of using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft is anterior knee pain (donor site morbidity). It occurs significantly more often than with hamstring autografts.

Question 532

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old male sustains a severe knee hyperextension injury. Plain radiographs reveal an avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial capsule (Segond fracture). This radiographic finding is most highly associated with an injury to which of the following structures?

. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Medial collateral ligament
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterolateral corner
. Patellar tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

A Segond fracture is an avulsion fracture of the anterolateral proximal tibia and is highly pathognomonic for an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. It represents an avulsion of the anterolateral ligament complex.

Question 533

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 22-year-old female soccer player undergoes ACL reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft. Compared to a multi-strand hamstring autograft, what is the most significant disadvantage of utilizing this specific graft?

. Higher risk of graft rupture
. Anterior knee pain
. Slower incorporation time
. Increased risk of deep infection
. Poor rotational stability

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior knee pain


Explanation

BTB autografts offer excellent initial fixation and reliable bone-to-bone healing. However, their primary disadvantage compared to hamstring autografts is a significantly higher incidence of donor site morbidity, notably anterior knee pain and kneeling discomfort.

Question 534

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 26-year-old male undergoes arthroscopic anterior stabilization for recurrent shoulder dislocations. Intraoperatively, he is noted to have a large, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following adjunctive procedures is most appropriate to prevent recurrent anterior instability?

. Latarjet procedure
. Remplissage procedure
. Slap repair
. Subscapularis advancement
. Biceps tenodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Remplissage procedure


Explanation

The Remplissage procedure involves tenodesis of the infraspinatus tendon and posterior capsule into the Hill-Sachs defect. This converts an intra-articular defect into an extra-articular one, preventing the lesion from engaging the anterior glenoid rim.

Question 535

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 25-year-old female professional soccer player undergoes anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft. Compared to hamstring autograft, the BPTB autograft is associated with a statistically higher incidence of which of the following?

. Graft rupture
. Deep surgical site infection
. Anterior knee pain
. Hamstring weakness
. Saphenous nerve neuroma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior knee pain


Explanation

Bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autografts are historically associated with a higher incidence of anterior knee pain and kneeling pain compared to hamstring autografts. Rates of graft rupture and infection are generally comparable.

Question 536

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

During an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft, the surgeon inadvertently places the femoral tunnel too anteriorly. What is the most likely postoperative clinical consequence?

. Laxity in flexion and tightness in extension
. Tightness in flexion and laxity in extension
. Equal tightness in all arcs of motion
. Patellar tracking abnormalities
. Delayed graft incorporation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Laxity in flexion and tightness in extension


Explanation

Placing the femoral tunnel anterior to the native ACL footprint causes the graft to become excessively tight in flexion, severely restricting motion, while remaining loose in extension.

Question 537

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old man presents with chronic right shoulder pain. On examination, he has notable weakness in external rotation with the arm abducted to 90 degrees, demonstrating a positive hornblower's sign. Which rotator cuff tendon is predominantly pathological?

. Supraspinatus
. Subscapularis
. Teres minor
. Teres major
. Long head of the biceps

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teres minor


Explanation

A positive hornblower's sign indicates significant weakness of external rotation in abduction, which specifically isolates pathology of the teres minor muscle and tendon.

Question 538

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 29-year-old woman who is breastfeeding presents to the on-call GP with a cough productive of rust-coloured sputum. She has also had increasing fevers over the past few days. On examination, her temperature is 38.6 °C, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg and pulse 90 bpm. She has bronchial breathing at the right base on auscultation of her chest. She is allergic to penicillin.

Investigation:

Hb 12.5 g/dl

WCC 11.5 x 109/l

PLT 211 x 109/l

Sodium 139 mmol/l

Potassium 4.5 mmol/l

Creatinine 90 µmol/l A chest X-ray shows a right lower-lobe pneumonia. Which of the following would be the most appropriate antibiotic choice?

. Cefalexin
. Ciprofloxacin
. Clarithromycin
. Co-amoxiclav
. Flucloxacillin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Clarithromycin


Explanation

Correct Answer: C- Clarithromycin Explanation Clarithromycin Clarithromycin is an appropriate choice in penicillin- allergic patients for the treatment of community- acquired pneumonia. Cefalexin Cefalexin is incorrect. Cefalexin would be a reasonable choice if there were no alternatives, but there is 10% crossover with penicillin allergy. Ciprofloxacin Ciprofloxacin is incorrect. Ciprofloxacin is associated with tendon rupture in juvenile animal models and is therefore not recommended during breastfeeding. Co-amoxiclav Co-amoxiclav is incorrect. This patient is allergic to penicillins, which immediately rules out co- amoxiclav, which is a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid. Flucloxacillin Flucloxacillin is incorrect. This patient is allergic to penicillins, which immediately rules out flucloxacillin.

Question 539

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old football player sustains a high-energy varus blow to his knee. Examination reveals significant posterolateral corner (PLC) instability. Which peripheral nerve is most commonly injured in association with this specific injury pattern?

. Tibial nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Common peroneal nerve
. Saphenous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Common peroneal nerve


Explanation

The common peroneal nerve is uniquely susceptible to traction injury during a varus and hyperextension force that disrupts the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee. Patients should be assessed for foot drop and numbness in the first web space.

Question 540

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 19-year-old man is reviewed a few days after admission for a spontaneous, primary pneumothorax. He is a non-smoker who plays the trumpet for a local orchestra. He was treated with a chest drain and achieved full inflation of the lung. Which of the following should he strictly avoid for at least the next 6 months?

. Contact sports
. Flying in an aaeroplane
. Long-distance running
. Playing the trumpet
. Scuba diving

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Scuba diving


Explanation

Correct Answer: E- Scuba diving Explanation Scuba diving Scuba diving is not recommended after spontaneous pneumothorax. Advice suggests that, in those who do not dive professionally, who have not undergone a definitive procedure (i.e. bilateral pleurodesis), it should be avoided permanently if possible. Contact sports Contact sports is incorrect. In the absence of a rib fracture, contact sports could re-commence after 2 months. Flying in an aaeroplane Flying in an aeroplane is incorrect. Air travel is not recommended for 1 week after full resolution of a pneumothorax. Long-distance running Long-distance running is incorrect. In the absence of a rib fracture, running could re-commence after 2 months. Playing the trumpet Playing the trumpet is incorrect. Opinions suggest that playing brass instruments can re-start approximately 2 months after the pneumothorax.