5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 26-year-old male sustains an isolated posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) rupture in a motorcycle accident and fails nonoperative management. A single-bundle PCL reconstruction is planned.

To correctly recreate the anterolateral (AL) bundle, the femoral tunnel should be placed at which of the following locations?

During surgical reconstruction of a multiligament knee injury, the surgeon isolates the fibular collateral ligament (FCL) to recreate its native anatomy.

Where is the correct anatomical location of the native FCL femoral attachment?

A 22-year-old hockey player undergoes hip arthroscopy for symptomatic femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). Radiographs show an alpha angle of 65 degrees.

To address the cam deformity, osteochondroplasty is most commonly performed in which region of the femoral head-neck junction?

A 17-year-old female presents with her first episode of lateral patellar dislocation. An MRI confirms rupture of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL).

Where is the native femoral footprint of the MPFL located in relation to the medial epicondyle and adductor tubercle?

A 25-year-old professional tennis player undergoes arthroscopic repair of a Type II superior labrum anterior-posterior (SLAP) lesion.

What is the most commonly reported complication following this specific procedure in overhead athletes?

A 13-year-old gymnast complains of vague, activity-related anterior knee pain. Imaging reveals an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion with intact overlying cartilage.

What is the most common anatomical location for this pathology in the knee?

A 19-year-old soccer player is scheduled for ACL reconstruction. The surgeon discusses autograft choices, including bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) and hamstring.

In comparative studies, what complication is significantly more common with BTB autograft than with hamstring autograft?

Following an arthroscopic repair of a full-thickness supraspinatus tear, the tendon undergoes a complex biological healing process.

How does the healed tendon-to-bone interface typically present histologically?

A 22-year-old soccer player undergoes an anatomic single-bundle anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of placing the femoral tunnel too far anteriorly (shallow) in the intercondylar notch?

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and a decrease in pitching velocity. Examination reveals 15 degrees of internal rotation and 120 degrees of external rotation in the dominant arm, compared to 60 degrees of internal rotation and 90 degrees of external rotation in the non-dominant arm. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

A 45-year-old recreational tennis player has persistent deep shoulder pain. MRI shows an isolated Type II Superior Labrum Anterior Posterior (SLAP) tear. He undergoes arthroscopic evaluation. What is the most reliable predictor of failure if a primary SLAP repair is performed in this patient instead of a biceps tenodesis?

A 20-year-old rugby player presents with his third anterior shoulder dislocation. A CT scan with 3D reconstruction is obtained.

Measurements indicate a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention to minimize the risk of recurrent instability?

A 19-year-old collegiate swimmer presents with insidious onset bilateral shoulder pain. Physical examination demonstrates a 2+ sulcus sign bilaterally, apprehension at end-range abduction/external rotation without a distinct subluxation event, and generalized ligamentous laxity. What is the most appropriate initial management?

When comparing bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft to hamstring autograft for anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, BTB autograft is associated with a statistically higher incidence of which of the following postoperative complications?

A 24-year-old competitive rugby player sustains his third anterior shoulder dislocation. A pre-operative CT scan demonstrates 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate?

A 12-year-old boy presents with vague anterior knee pain. Radiographs demonstrate a 1.5 cm osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion of the medial femoral condyle.

MRI reveals no fluid behind the lesion, and his physes are wide open. What is the recommended initial management?

A 10-year-old skeletally immature female soccer player sustains an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. She is Tanner stage 1 with significant growth remaining. Which of the following surgical techniques has the lowest risk of causing a growth arrest?

A 45-year-old woman sustains a posterior root tear of the medial meniscus. Biomechanically, this injury alters the joint contact pressures to be most equivalent to which of the following scenarios?