5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 28-year-old competitive weightlifter feels a sudden "pop" in his anterior chest wall while performing a heavy bench press. Examination demonstrates loss of the anterior axillary fold and significant weakness with internal rotation and adduction. MRI confirms a complete tear of the sternocostal head of the pectoralis major at its humeral insertion. What is the optimal management?

A 14-year-old elite female gymnast presents with lateral elbow pain and catching. Radiographs show a radiolucency in the capitellum. MRI reveals an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion of the capitellum with intact articular cartilage, but there is a rim of T2 hyperintense fluid behind the lesion. What is the most appropriate management?

A 45-year-old recreational tennis player complains of deep, vague anterior shoulder pain for 6 months. He has failed a comprehensive physical therapy program. MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP (Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior) tear. Based on current evidence, what is the best surgical option for this patient?

A 26-year-old ice hockey player presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate a pistol grip deformity and an alpha angle of 70 degrees. This specific morphologic abnormality primarily leads to articular cartilage damage in which region of the acetabulum?

A 16-year-old female presents to the clinic after suffering a first-time lateral patellar dislocation while dancing. The patella was reduced in the emergency department. Which of the following is considered an absolute indication for acute surgical stabilization in this patient?

A 30-year-old male sustains a severe varus and hyperextension injury to his knee. Examination shows a positive dial test at 30 degrees of flexion, with a 15-degree increase in external rotation compared to the contralateral knee. However, the dial test is symmetric at 90 degrees of flexion. Which structure is most likely injured in isolation?

A 19-year-old female collegiate soccer player undergoes anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft. When counseling her preoperatively, which of the following is considered the most common long-term complication associated with this specific graft choice compared to a hamstring autograft?

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability following an initial dislocation sustained two years ago. A 3D CT scan demonstrates 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management to minimize his risk of recurrent instability?

A 45-year-old recreational weightlifter feels a pop in the posterior aspect of his right knee while deep squatting. An MRI reveals a complete radial tear of the posterior root of the medial meniscus. If left untreated, what is the primary biomechanical consequence of this specific injury?

A 24-year-old professional hockey player presents with an insidious onset of groin pain that is exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate an elevated alpha angle of 68 degrees and a prominent osseous bump at the anterolateral femoral head-neck junction. During dynamic motion, what is the primary pathomechanism of acetabular cartilage damage in this condition?

A 28-year-old overhead athlete presents with deep shoulder pain and clicking. A Type II SLAP (Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior) lesion is identified on MR arthrography. According to Snyder's classification, which of the following describes the pathologic anatomy of a Type II SLAP lesion?

A 22-year-old female collegiate soccer player undergoes primary anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a quadrupled hamstring autograft. Compared to a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft, which of the following is the most likely long-term functional deficit?

A 23-year-old male competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. He has experienced 4 dislocations this season. Advanced imaging demonstrates an anterior glenoid bone loss of 28% and an engaging 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 50-year-old woman reports feeling a 'pop' in her posterior knee while squatting to garden, followed by medial-sided knee pain and a mild effusion. MRI confirms a medial meniscus posterior root tear with no significant osteoarthritis. What biomechanical consequence is most likely if this injury is treated nonoperatively?

A 26-year-old professional hockey player presents with chronic, deep anterior groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate a pistol-grip deformity and an alpha angle of 65 degrees on the Dunn lateral view. Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms is most responsible for the articular cartilage damage in this condition?

A 15-year-old female gymnast presents with an acute lateral patellar dislocation after an awkward landing. The patella is spontaneously reduced. On MRI, there is a full-thickness rupture of the primary soft-tissue restraint to lateral patellar translation. At what degree of knee flexion does this specific ligament provide the maximum proportional contribution to restraining lateral patellar displacement?

A 25-year-old football player sustains a direct blow to the anteromedial aspect of his proximal tibia while his foot is planted and the knee is in extension. He complains of lateral knee pain and instability. On physical examination, there is an asymmetric increase in external rotation on the dial test at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but the side-to-side difference resolves at 90 degrees of knee flexion.

Based on these findings, which of the following structures is most likely injured?

A 20-year-old collegiate rugby player with a history of recurrent anterior shoulder instability presents after another dislocation. Imaging reveals a bipolar bone loss condition with 25% glenoid bone loss and an off-track Hill-Sachs lesion. A Latarjet procedure is planned. Which of the following describes the most significant primary stabilizing mechanism of the Latarjet procedure?

A 24-year-old male presents with knee stiffness 6 months after an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. On physical examination, he has full extension but lacks 30 degrees of terminal flexion compared to the contralateral knee. Which of the following technical errors during graft placement most likely accounts for this clinical presentation?

A 55-year-old physically active woman experiences a sudden 'pop' in her posterior knee while squatting. An MRI demonstrates a complete radial tear at the posterior root of the medial meniscus. If left untreated, biomechanical studies suggest this injury creates a knee environment most equivalent to which of the following?