5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 40-year-old marathon runner feels a sudden pop in the posterior aspect of his knee while decelerating. MRI demonstrates a complete radial tear at the posterior root of the medial meniscus. If left untreated, this specific injury pattern most closely mimics the biomechanical effects of which of the following?

A 25-year-old athlete sustains a high-energy knee dislocation during a football game. Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrates complete tears of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), posterior cruciate ligament (PCL), and the posteromedial corner (PMC). The patient undergoes single-stage multi-ligament knee reconstruction 3 weeks post-injury. What is the most common complication following surgical treatment of a multi-ligament knee injury?

A 30-year-old competitive weightlifter feels a sudden, painful 'pop' in his anterior chest wall while performing a heavy bench press. Physical examination reveals ecchymosis, loss of the anterior axillary fold, and notable weakness in internal rotation and adduction of the humerus. MRI confirms a complete tear of the pectoralis major at its humeral insertion. What is the optimal management for this patient?

A 21-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability following an initial dislocation one year ago. A 3D reconstructed CT scan of the glenoid demonstrates an 'inverted pear' appearance with approximately 26% anterior bone loss.

What is the most appropriate surgical intervention to prevent recurrent instability?

A 45-year-old woman experiences a sudden 'pop' in the back of her knee while squatting. MRI demonstrates a medial meniscus posterior root tear and localized marrow edema in the medial femoral condyle. What is the primary biomechanical consequence of leaving this root tear untreated?

During hip arthroscopy for a 28-year-old hockey player with femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), an osteochondroplasty is performed for a large cam lesion at the femoral head-neck junction. Resection of more than what percentage of the femoral neck diameter substantially increases the risk of an iatrogenic postoperative femoral neck fracture?

A 14-year-old female gymnast presents with lateral elbow pain, clicking, and a 15-degree extension deficit. Radiographs demonstrate a lucency in the capitellum. MRI reveals an osteochondral defect with high T2 signal fluid surrounding the fragment, indicating instability. Her capitellar physis is open. What is the recommended treatment?

A 35-year-old woman presents with persistent anterior hip pain. Imaging shows a positive crossover sign, a center-edge angle of 45 degrees, and a labral tear. Which of the following is the defining pathomechanical feature of this specific type of femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)?

A 22-year-old collegiate soccer player is evaluated for posterolateral knee pain and a feeling of instability after a twisting injury. On physical examination, the dial test demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation compared to the contralateral normal knee at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees of knee flexion. This finding is most indicative of an isolated injury to which of the following structures?

A 24-year-old male presents with deep groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate a 'pistol grip' deformity of the proximal femur. Which of the following radiographic parameters is most diagnostic of the Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) suspected in this patient?

A 28-year-old overhead throwing athlete presents with deep shoulder pain and clicking. An MRI is obtained as shown in Figure 4.

After failing conservative management, he undergoes arthroscopic repair for a Type II SLAP lesion. Which of the following portals provides the most optimal trajectory for anchor placement at the posterosuperior glenoid rim to address this pathology?

A 45-year-old recreational athlete feels a 'pop' in the back of his knee while performing a deep squat. MRI reveals a complete posterior root tear of the medial meniscus. According to biomechanical studies, leaving a complete posterior root tear of the medial meniscus unrepaired is biomechanically equivalent to which of the following?

A 55-year-old man presents with right shoulder weakness after a fall on an outstretched arm. He specifically complains of difficulty tucking in his shirt behind his back and bringing his hand to his abdomen. Physical examination reveals a positive bear-hug test and increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side. Which of the following special tests is also most likely to be positive in this patient?

A 28-year-old physically active female presents with a 3.5 cm² symptomatic, unipolar, full-thickness chondral defect on the medial femoral condyle. She has failed 6 months of non-operative management. Diagnostic arthroscopy reveals normal mechanical alignment, an intact meniscus, and a stable knee. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate to provide hyaline-like cartilage restoration for a defect of this size?

A 25-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and a noted decrease in pitching velocity. Physical exam reveals a Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees compared to the non-throwing shoulder, along with a loss of total arc of motion. What is the most common pathomechanical cause of symptomatic GIRD contributing to internal impingement in the overhead throwing athlete?

A 17-year-old female high school soccer player tears her ACL during a game. She and her parents are discussing graft options for surgical reconstruction. What is the most accurate information regarding the use of bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) allograft compared to BPTB autograft in this specific patient population?

A 22-year-old male rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability after a primary dislocation 2 years ago. He reports 5 subsequent dislocations requiring closed reduction. A 3D CT scan of the shoulder is shown in Figure 14, demonstrating an 'inverted pear' glenoid with 27% anterior bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

A 30-year-old male sustains a severe knee hyperextension injury during American football, resulting in a knee dislocation. After closed reduction, his vascular exam is normal with biphasic pulses, but he exhibits a profound foot drop and absent sensation in the first web space. An MRI shown in Figure 5 demonstrates complete disruption of the ACL, PCL, and posterolateral corner (PLC). Which of the following anatomical structures is most closely associated with the pathway of the injured nerve and serves as a critical surgical landmark?

A 24-year-old male collegiate hockey player complains of insidious onset, worsening deep right groin pain that is exacerbated by prolonged sitting and deep hip flexion. A radiograph is shown in Figure 19, demonstrating an abnormal alpha angle of 65 degrees. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism of chondral injury in this specific morphological variant of femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)?

A 45-year-old active female felt a 'pop' in her knee while squatting. MRI reveals a full-thickness tear at the posterior meniscal root.

What biomechanical alteration is most likely present in her knee compared to a normal, uninjured state?