Practice Set 225 of 360
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 5. Sports Medicine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
The primary blood supply to the supraspinatus tendon is derived from branches of which of the following arteries?
. Anterior circumflex humeral artery
A 30-year-old male sustains a twisting injury to his knee. Examination reveals increased external tibial rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetrical rotation at 90 degrees of flexion compared to the contralateral side. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
During an arthroscopic stabilization procedure for anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon performs a rotator interval closure. Which of the following structures form the superior and inferior boundaries of this interval, respectively?
. Supraspinatus and subscapularis
A 22-year-old female undergoes ACL reconstruction. The surgeon drills the femoral tunnel independently to accurately recreate the anatomic footprint of the ACL. Which of the following accurately describes the biomechanical function of the anteromedial (AM) bundle of the native ACL?
. It is primarily tight in extension and resists anterior translation.
A 26-year-old male volleyball player presents with painless weakness of his hitting arm. Physical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa with normal supraspinatus bulk and strength. An MRI is likely to show a paralabral cyst compressing a nerve at which of the following anatomic locations?
. Suprascapular notch
A 16-year-old female with recurrent patellar dislocations is scheduled for medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction. The femoral origin of the MPFL (Schöttle's point) is best described anatomically as being located:
. Anterior to the medial epicondyle and proximal to the adductor tubercle
A 30-year-old male athlete sustains an ultra-low velocity anterior knee dislocation during a martial arts competition. The knee spontaneously reduces before arrival. Examination reveals a grossly unstable knee but a strong, palpable dorsalis pedis pulse. Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) is 0.85. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Discharge with a knee immobilizer and outpatient MRI
A 38-year-old male recreational basketball player sustains an acute Achilles tendon rupture. He is debating between operative and nonoperative management with early functional rehabilitation. Based on current literature, what is the most accurate statement comparing these two treatments?
. Operative management has a significantly higher rate of re-rupture.
A 40-year-old male presents to the emergency department after falling on his outstretched arm. Radiographs reveal an anterior shoulder dislocation and an associated greater tuberosity fracture. Following a successful closed reduction of the glenohumeral joint, repeat radiographs show the greater tuberosity fragment displaced 8 mm superiorly. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Immobilization in an external rotation brace for 6 weeks
A collegiate football player sustains a high-energy hyperdorsiflexion injury to his great toe. MRI reveals a complete rupture of the plantar plate at the first metatarsophalangeal joint with proximal retraction of the sesamoids. What is the most appropriate management?
. Stiff-soled shoe and immediate weight-bearing
A 30-year-old male presents with persistent medial ankle pain 6 months after an inversion injury. An MRI shows an osteochondral lesion of the medial talar dome measuring 1.1 cm in diameter, without subchondral cysts. What is the most appropriate primary surgical intervention?
. Osteochondral autograft transfer (OATS)
A 32-year-old recreational athlete sustains an acute Achilles tendon rupture and opts for nonoperative management. Which of the following rehabilitation protocols has been shown to result in re-rupture rates most comparable to surgical repair?
. Long-leg cast for 6 weeks followed by short-leg cast for 4 weeks
A 22-year-old collegiate football player sustains a hyperextension injury to his great toe. He has diffuse swelling, ecchymosis, and inability to bear weight. MRI shows a complete tear of the plantar plate with proximal retraction of the sesamoids. What is the most appropriate management?
. Stiff-soled shoe and return to play as tolerated
A 28-year-old female presents with deep ankle pain and catching 1 year after a severe ankle sprain. MRI demonstrates a 1.2 cm osteochondral lesion on the posteromedial talar dome with intact overlying cartilage. What is the most appropriate initial surgical approach?
. Open osteochondral autograft transfer (OATS)
A 40-year-old recreational athlete sustains an acute Achilles tendon rupture. In comparing operative repair versus non-operative management utilizing an early functional rehabilitation protocol, current evidence supports which of the following conclusions?
. Operative repair results in a significantly lower rerupture rate.
. Primary surgical repair of the plantar plate complex
A 22-year-old professional basketball player sustains an acute, non-displaced fracture of the proximal fifth metatarsal at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction (Zone 2). What is the most appropriate treatment to minimize time away from sports and the risk of nonunion?
. A short leg walking cast for 6 weeks
A 28-year-old professional football player suffers a severe hyperextension injury to his first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. MRI reveals a complete rupture of the plantar plate with 4 mm of proximal retraction of the sesamoids. What is the most appropriate management?
. Taping and insertion of a rigid carbon fiber plate for 6 weeks
A 24-year-old woman has persistent deep ankle pain following an inversion sprain 6 months ago. MRI demonstrates an isolated 12-mm purely cartilaginous osteochondral lesion on the anterolateral aspect of the talar dome. What is the most appropriate first-line surgical treatment?
. Arthroscopic debridement and microfracture
A professional athlete sustains a hyperextension injury to his first MTP joint. MRI confirms a complete tear of the plantar plate with proximal sesamoid retraction. He is unable to push off. What is the most appropriate management?
. Taping and immediate return to play