5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 29-year-old volleyball player presents with insidious onset right shoulder weakness. MRI demonstrates an isolated paralabral cyst located in the spinoglenoid notch causing nerve compression. Which of the following clinical findings is most expected?

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan indicates 25% glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 30-year-old male bodybuilder reports dull, aching posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch. Which muscle is primarily affected?

A 45-year-old male presents with shoulder pain and inability to externally rotate his arm after a generalized seizure. An axillary radiograph shows a posterior shoulder dislocation with a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 35% of the articular surface.

The dislocation is reduced. What is the most appropriate management?

A 55-year-old man falls on an outstretched hand and presents with weakness in internal rotation. He has a positive belly-press test and increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side. Which structure is most likely injured?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A pre-operative computed tomography (CT) scan with 3D reconstruction reveals an anterior inferior glenoid bone defect measuring 26% of the native glenoid width. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 45-year-old male presents with vague posterolateral shoulder pain and weakness. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) reveals a large paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch compressing the traversing nerve. Which of the following physical examination findings is most likely present?

A 60-year-old man feels a sudden pop in his shoulder while lifting a heavy box. On examination, he has a positive belly-press test and increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side. Which structure has most likely been ruptured?

A 25-year-old male requires surgery for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Diagnostic arthroscopy reveals an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion and a 12% anterior glenoid bone defect. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate?

A 45-year-old construction worker presents with deep anterior shoulder pain. MRI arthrogram reveals an isolated Type II SLAP tear. He has failed 6 months of physical therapy and injections. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 40-year-old recreational tennis player has an MRI demonstrating a partial articular supraspinatus tendon avulsion (PASTA) involving 60% of the tendon footprint. He has failed conservative management. What is the recommended surgical management?

A 65-year-old man is scheduled for repair of a massive, retracted rotator cuff tear. Which of the following preoperative MRI findings is most strongly associated with a high rate of structural failure following repair?

An 18-year-old female gymnast presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a feeling of looseness. Examination reveals generalized ligamentous laxity, a prominent bilateral sulcus sign, and apprehension in multiple positions. She has not had any prior treatment. What is the most appropriate initial management?

During an arthroscopic remplissage for a patient with an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion, which anatomical structures are tenodesed into the humeral head defect?

How does an Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion (ALPSA) lesion differ anatomically from a classic Bankart lesion?

A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department following a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He has a posterior sternoclavicular dislocation and complains of progressive shortness of breath and dysphagia. A closed reduction under general anesthesia is attempted but fails. What is the most critical next step in management?

A 22-year-old competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management?

A 45-year-old man falls while water skiing and presents with severe shoulder pain and weakness. Physical examination reveals increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side, weakness in internal rotation, and a positive belly-press test. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?

A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe shoulder pain after experiencing a grand mal seizure. On examination, his arm is locked in internal rotation and he is unable to actively or passively externally rotate the shoulder. An axillary lateral radiograph confirms a posterior glenohumeral dislocation with an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 35% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 26-year-old professional volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and progressive weakness. Physical examination demonstrates isolated weakness in external rotation with the arm at the side, but normal abduction strength. There is visible atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa. Where is the most likely location of nerve compression?