5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has an intact subscapularis, preserved glenohumeral cartilage, and profound weakness in external rotation. Which of the following tendon transfers is most appropriate to restore external rotation?

A 26-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. An MRI arthrogram reveals an intact anterior labrum but a complete avulsion of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from its humeral attachment, presenting as a 'J-sign'. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 28-year-old professional baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination reveals a 25-degree Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD) compared to the contralateral side. This condition is primarily driven by contracture of which of the following structures?

A 32-year-old elite volleyball player presents with painless weakness in external rotation of her dominant shoulder. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa. The supraspinatus exhibits normal strength. Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve at which of the following locations best explains these findings?

A 55-year-old male falls forward on his outstretched arm. He presents with shoulder pain, a positive lift-off test, and a positive bear-hug test. Passive external rotation is increased compared to the contralateral side. Which structure is most likely injured?

A 24-year-old male with recurrent anterior shoulder instability undergoes arthroscopy. He is found to have an anterior Bankart lesion and a large Hill-Sachs defect that engages the anterior glenoid rim during abduction and external rotation. Glenoid bone loss is estimated at 10%. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher is diagnosed with a Type II SLAP tear after failing nonoperative management. What is the primary biomechanical mechanism responsible for this specific labral pathology in overhead throwers?

A 22-year-old competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D computed tomography (CT) scan reveals 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention to minimize the risk of recurrent instability?

A 45-year-old heavy laborer presents with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has intact subscapularis function, active forward elevation to 130 degrees, but a severe lag sign in external rotation. Radiographs show no glenohumeral osteoarthritis. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 30-year-old professional volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch. This finding is most commonly associated with which of the following concomitant pathologies?

A 25-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Imaging demonstrates an off-track engaging Hill-Sachs lesion with 12% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate arthroscopic surgical management?

A 55-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain and weakness with internal rotation. On examination, the examiner elevates the patient's arm to 90 degrees in the scapular plane, flexes the elbow to 90 degrees, and asks the patient to internally rotate against resistance. The patient is unable to maintain the hand against his opposite shoulder. Which structure is most likely injured?

A 45-year-old manual laborer undergoes shoulder arthroscopy for superior shoulder pain. A Type II SLAP tear is identified with no other intra-articular pathology. Based on current literature, what is the best surgical management for this patient to minimize postoperative stiffness and reoperation?

A 35-year-old male sustains a severe seizure resulting in a locked posterior shoulder dislocation. CT imaging reveals a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 25% of the anteromedial humeral head articular surface. What is the most appropriate management?

Which of the following preoperative factors has been most strongly correlated with structural failure (non-healing) following arthroscopic repair of a large rotator cuff tear?

During an arthroscopic rotator cuff repair, the surgeon identifies the 'comma sign' tissue dropping deep into the joint. Tracing this structure superiorly and laterally leads directly to the torn edge of which anatomical structure?

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management?

A 28-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain. MRI arthrogram shows undersurface fraying of the posterior supraspinatus and posterosuperior labrum. This pathology is primarily exacerbated by which of the following shoulder positions?

During the physical examination of a 55-year-old man with a suspected rotator cuff tear, the examiner asks the patient to place the palm of his hand on his contralateral shoulder and attempts to externally rotate the patient's hand while the patient resists. Which specific structure is best isolated by this test?

A 35-year-old man presents after a seizure with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation. CT scan demonstrates an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 35% of the articular surface. The dislocation is irreducible closed. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?