This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 5. Sports Medicine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3921
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 45-year-old heavy laborer has a massive, retracted, and irreparable subscapularis tendon tear. He complains of severe weakness with lifting objects in front of his body. Which tendon transfer is the most appropriate primary option to restore function?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
Explanation
The pectoralis major tendon transfer (routed either anterior or posterior to the conjoined tendon) is the preferred procedure to restore active internal rotation and stability in the setting of an irreparable subscapularis tear.
Question 3922
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 55-year-old physically active man presents with an irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear (supraspinatus and infraspinatus). The subscapularis is completely intact, and there is no glenohumeral arthritis. He has a severe external rotation lag. Which tendon transfer is most appropriate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pectoralis major transfer
Explanation
The latissimus dorsi (or lower trapezius) transfer is indicated for irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears to restore external rotation and elevation in young, active patients without significant glenohumeral arthritis.
Question 3923
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
The 'terrible triad' of the shoulder is a distinct clinical entity commonly seen in middle-aged or older patients following high-energy trauma. Which three injuries comprise this triad?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior shoulder dislocation, rotator cuff tear, and neurologic injury
Explanation
The terrible triad of the shoulder consists of an anterior glenohumeral dislocation, a rotator cuff tear (often massive), and a neurologic injury (most commonly the axillary nerve or brachial plexus).
Question 3924
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with his fourth anterior shoulder dislocation. A 3D CT scan is obtained to evaluate bone stock.
The imaging reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
Explanation
Critical glenoid bone loss (>20-25%) in a young collision athlete is a strong indication for a bony augmentation procedure like the Latarjet to restore anterior stability. Soft tissue repairs alone in this setting have an unacceptably high failure rate.
Question 3925
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old offensive lineman presents with deep posterior shoulder pain and clicking during bench pressing. Examination reveals a positive jerk test. If an MRI arthrogram is obtained, it is most likely to show a labral tear at which clock-face location on the right glenoid?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 12 to 2 o'clock
Explanation
A positive jerk test indicates posterior shoulder instability, which is highly associated with a reverse Bankart lesion. On a right shoulder, this corresponds to the posteroinferior labrum between 7 and 9 o'clock.
Question 3926
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 45-year-old male presents with acute shoulder pain and weakness after falling on an outstretched arm while skiing. Physical examination demonstrates increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side and a positive belly-press test. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supraspinatus tendon
Explanation
The subscapularis is the primary internal rotator of the shoulder. A tear results in increased passive external rotation and weakness on specific testing, such as a positive lift-off, belly-press, or bear-hug test.
Question 3927
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old male is undergoing arthroscopic evaluation for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Diagnostic arthroscopy reveals an 'engaging' Hill-Sachs lesion, but pre-operative CT scan showed minimal glenoid bone loss (<10%). Which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone
Explanation
An engaging Hill-Sachs lesion (off-track lesion) without critical glenoid bone loss is effectively treated by combining an arthroscopic Bankart repair with a Remplissage. Remplissage involves tenodesing the infraspinatus into the humeral defect to prevent engagement.
Question 3928
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 19-year-old gymnast presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of her shoulders 'slipping' during routines. She has a positive sulcus sign bilaterally and generalized ligamentous laxity. Supervised physical therapy has failed to improve her symptoms after 6 weeks. What is the next best step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic anterior labral repair
Explanation
Multidirectional instability (MDI) is primarily managed non-operatively. An extended course (at least 6 months) of physical therapy focusing on periscapular and rotator cuff strengthening is indicated before considering surgical intervention like a capsular shift.
Question 3929
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During an arthroscopic rotator cuff repair, the surgeon evaluates the normal anatomical footprint on the greater tuberosity. Which of the following best describes the normal insertion site of the supraspinatus tendon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior facet of the greater tuberosity
Explanation
The supraspinatus tendon inserts onto the superior facet of the greater tuberosity. The infraspinatus inserts onto the middle facet, and the teres minor inserts onto the inferior facet.
Question 3930
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan with 3D reconstruction demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
Explanation
Critical glenoid bone loss (>20-25%) in a collision athlete is an absolute indication for a bony augmentation procedure like the Latarjet. Soft tissue repairs alone in this setting have an unacceptably high failure rate.
Question 3931
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 70-year-old man presents with an inability to actively elevate his right arm above 45 degrees, though passive elevation is full. Radiographs show superior migration of the humeral head with an acromiohumeral interval of 3 mm. MRI confirms a massive, retracted rotator cuff tear with Goutallier grade 4 fatty infiltration of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. What is the best treatment option?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic primary rotator cuff repair
Explanation
Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is the treatment of choice for elderly patients with cuff tear arthropathy and pseudoparalysis. It provides a stable fulcrum, allowing the deltoid to effectively restore active forward elevation.
Question 3932
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 34-year-old man has chronic posterior shoulder pain and limited external rotation following a seizure 3 months ago. Radiographs confirm a missed posterior dislocation with an associated reverse Hill-Sachs defect involving 35% of the articular surface. The joint is reducible but unstable in internal rotation. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Closed reduction and spica cast in external rotation
Explanation
For reverse Hill-Sachs defects involving >30-40% of the articular surface, an osteoarticular allograft is recommended to restore joint congruity and stability. Smaller defects (<20%) can be treated with a modified McLaughlin procedure.
Question 3933
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 45-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain and weakness after a forceful external rotation injury. He demonstrates increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side. Which physical examination test is most sensitive and specific for his likely injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Jobe's test
Explanation
The clinical presentation suggests a subscapularis tendon tear, indicated by increased passive external rotation. The bear hug test is highly sensitive and specific for evaluating the integrity of the upper subscapularis.
Question 3934
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
In the setting of recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the addition of an arthroscopic remplissage (infraspinatus tenodesis) to a Bankart repair is most appropriately indicated for which of the following scenarios?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subcritical glenoid bone loss (<15%) with an off-track Hill-Sachs lesion
Explanation
Remplissage is indicated for engaging or "off-track" Hill-Sachs lesions in the setting of subcritical glenoid bone loss. It prevents the defect from engaging the anterior glenoid rim during external rotation.
Question 3935
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 50-year-old laborer undergoes a latissimus dorsi tendon transfer for an irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. To function effectively, the transferred latissimus dorsi primarily replicates the function of which native muscle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supraspinatus
Explanation
Latissimus dorsi transfer is used for irreparable massive posterosuperior tears to restore external rotation and provide a head-depressing effect. It primarily replicates the function of the infraspinatus and teres minor.
Question 3936
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch and a superior labral tear. Which physical examination finding is most likely to be present?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Weakness in internal rotation
Explanation
A cyst at the spinoglenoid notch compresses the suprascapular nerve after it has provided motor branches to the supraspinatus. This results in isolated denervation, weakness, and atrophy of the infraspinatus.
Question 3937
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
The concept of the "suspension bridge" model of the rotator cuff, described by Burkhart, emphasizes the importance of which intact structures in maintaining normal glenohumeral kinematics despite a supraspinatus tear?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior and posterior bands of the coracoacromial ligament
Explanation
The rotator cable acts as a suspension bridge to transfer forces. As long as the anterior (subscapularis) and posterior (infraspinatus) transverse force couples remain intact, shoulder kinematics can remain balanced and functional.
Question 3938
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 45-year-old man sustains a severe fracture-dislocation of the proximal humerus. During an open reduction through a deltopectoral approach, brisk arterial bleeding is encountered near the inferior border of the subscapularis. Which vessel is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior circumflex humeral artery
Explanation
The anterior circumflex humeral artery, often referred to as the "three sisters" along with its venae comitantes, runs laterally across the inferior border of the subscapularis. It must be carefully identified and ligated or cauterized during the deltopectoral approach.
Question 3939
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
In performing a superior capsular reconstruction (SCR) for an irreparable supraspinatus tear, the graft is typically attached medially to the superior glenoid and laterally to the greater tuberosity. What is the primary biomechanical goal of this procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. To actively elevate the humerus during abduction
Explanation
SCR utilizes a dermal or fascial graft to statically replace the absent superior capsule. This provides a restraint that prevents superior migration of the humeral head, restoring the anatomic fulcrum for the deltoid.
Question 3940
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During a Latarjet procedure, the coracoid process is osteotomized and transferred to the anterior glenoid. Which muscle tendon units are transferred with the coracoid to provide a dynamic "sling" effect?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pectoralis minor and short head of the biceps
Explanation
The conjoined tendon, consisting of the short head of the biceps and coracobrachialis, remains attached to the transferred coracoid process. When the arm is abducted and externally rotated, it acts as a dynamic sling across the anteroinferior capsule.
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