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Question 3921

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old heavy laborer has a massive, retracted, and irreparable subscapularis tendon tear. He complains of severe weakness with lifting objects in front of his body. Which tendon transfer is the most appropriate primary option to restore function?

. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Lower trapezius transfer
. Pectoralis major transfer
. Teres major transfer
. Biceps tenodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latissimus dorsi transfer


Explanation

The pectoralis major tendon transfer (routed either anterior or posterior to the conjoined tendon) is the preferred procedure to restore active internal rotation and stability in the setting of an irreparable subscapularis tear.

Question 3922

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old physically active man presents with an irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear (supraspinatus and infraspinatus). The subscapularis is completely intact, and there is no glenohumeral arthritis. He has a severe external rotation lag. Which tendon transfer is most appropriate?

. Pectoralis major transfer
. Pectoralis minor transfer
. Subscapularis transfer
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Coracobrachialis transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis major transfer


Explanation

The latissimus dorsi (or lower trapezius) transfer is indicated for irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears to restore external rotation and elevation in young, active patients without significant glenohumeral arthritis.

Question 3923

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The 'terrible triad' of the shoulder is a distinct clinical entity commonly seen in middle-aged or older patients following high-energy trauma. Which three injuries comprise this triad?

. Anterior shoulder dislocation, rotator cuff tear, and neurologic injury
. Posterior shoulder dislocation, reverse Hill-Sachs lesion, and lesser tuberosity fracture
. Proximal humerus fracture, clavicle fracture, and scapular spine fracture
. AC joint separation, clavicle fracture, and coracoclavicular ligament tear
. SLAP tear, Bankart lesion, and Hill-Sachs lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior shoulder dislocation, rotator cuff tear, and neurologic injury


Explanation

The terrible triad of the shoulder consists of an anterior glenohumeral dislocation, a rotator cuff tear (often massive), and a neurologic injury (most commonly the axillary nerve or brachial plexus).

Question 3924

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with his fourth anterior shoulder dislocation. A 3D CT scan is obtained to evaluate bone stock.

The imaging reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair
. Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic Remplissage
. Open inferior capsular shift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

Critical glenoid bone loss (>20-25%) in a young collision athlete is a strong indication for a bony augmentation procedure like the Latarjet to restore anterior stability. Soft tissue repairs alone in this setting have an unacceptably high failure rate.

Question 3925

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old offensive lineman presents with deep posterior shoulder pain and clicking during bench pressing. Examination reveals a positive jerk test. If an MRI arthrogram is obtained, it is most likely to show a labral tear at which clock-face location on the right glenoid?

. 12 to 2 o'clock
. 3 to 6 o'clock
. 7 to 9 o'clock
. 9 to 12 o'clock
. 6 to 7 o'clock

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 12 to 2 o'clock


Explanation

A positive jerk test indicates posterior shoulder instability, which is highly associated with a reverse Bankart lesion. On a right shoulder, this corresponds to the posteroinferior labrum between 7 and 9 o'clock.

Question 3926

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old male presents with acute shoulder pain and weakness after falling on an outstretched arm while skiing. Physical examination demonstrates increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side and a positive belly-press test. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?

. Supraspinatus tendon
. Infraspinatus tendon
. Subscapularis tendon
. Teres minor tendon
. Long head of the biceps

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus tendon


Explanation

The subscapularis is the primary internal rotator of the shoulder. A tear results in increased passive external rotation and weakness on specific testing, such as a positive lift-off, belly-press, or bear-hug test.

Question 3927

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old male is undergoing arthroscopic evaluation for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Diagnostic arthroscopy reveals an 'engaging' Hill-Sachs lesion, but pre-operative CT scan showed minimal glenoid bone loss (<10%). Which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with Remplissage
. Latarjet procedure
. Iliac crest bone grafting of the humeral head
. Open anterior capsular shift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone


Explanation

An engaging Hill-Sachs lesion (off-track lesion) without critical glenoid bone loss is effectively treated by combining an arthroscopic Bankart repair with a Remplissage. Remplissage involves tenodesing the infraspinatus into the humeral defect to prevent engagement.

Question 3928

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old gymnast presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of her shoulders 'slipping' during routines. She has a positive sulcus sign bilaterally and generalized ligamentous laxity. Supervised physical therapy has failed to improve her symptoms after 6 weeks. What is the next best step in management?

. Arthroscopic anterior labral repair
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy
. Continued physical therapy for 4-6 more months
. Bilateral Latarjet procedures

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic anterior labral repair


Explanation

Multidirectional instability (MDI) is primarily managed non-operatively. An extended course (at least 6 months) of physical therapy focusing on periscapular and rotator cuff strengthening is indicated before considering surgical intervention like a capsular shift.

Question 3929

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During an arthroscopic rotator cuff repair, the surgeon evaluates the normal anatomical footprint on the greater tuberosity. Which of the following best describes the normal insertion site of the supraspinatus tendon?

. Superior facet of the greater tuberosity
. Middle facet of the greater tuberosity
. Inferior facet of the greater tuberosity
. Medial aspect of the lesser tuberosity
. Bicipital groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior facet of the greater tuberosity


Explanation

The supraspinatus tendon inserts onto the superior facet of the greater tuberosity. The infraspinatus inserts onto the middle facet, and the teres minor inserts onto the inferior facet.

Question 3930

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan with 3D reconstruction demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic remplissage
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

Critical glenoid bone loss (>20-25%) in a collision athlete is an absolute indication for a bony augmentation procedure like the Latarjet. Soft tissue repairs alone in this setting have an unacceptably high failure rate.

Question 3931

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 70-year-old man presents with an inability to actively elevate his right arm above 45 degrees, though passive elevation is full. Radiographs show superior migration of the humeral head with an acromiohumeral interval of 3 mm. MRI confirms a massive, retracted rotator cuff tear with Goutallier grade 4 fatty infiltration of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. What is the best treatment option?

. Arthroscopic primary rotator cuff repair
. Superior capsular reconstruction
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
. Hemiarthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic primary rotator cuff repair


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is the treatment of choice for elderly patients with cuff tear arthropathy and pseudoparalysis. It provides a stable fulcrum, allowing the deltoid to effectively restore active forward elevation.

Question 3932

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 34-year-old man has chronic posterior shoulder pain and limited external rotation following a seizure 3 months ago. Radiographs confirm a missed posterior dislocation with an associated reverse Hill-Sachs defect involving 35% of the articular surface. The joint is reducible but unstable in internal rotation. What is the most appropriate management?

. Closed reduction and spica cast in external rotation
. Arthroscopic posterior capsulolabral repair
. Subscapularis transfer into the defect (McLaughlin procedure)
. Open reduction and osteoarticular allograft reconstruction
. Total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction and spica cast in external rotation


Explanation

For reverse Hill-Sachs defects involving >30-40% of the articular surface, an osteoarticular allograft is recommended to restore joint congruity and stability. Smaller defects (<20%) can be treated with a modified McLaughlin procedure.

Question 3933

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain and weakness after a forceful external rotation injury. He demonstrates increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side. Which physical examination test is most sensitive and specific for his likely injury?

. Jobe's test
. Neer's test
. O'Brien's active compression test
. Bear hug test
. Speed's test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Jobe's test


Explanation

The clinical presentation suggests a subscapularis tendon tear, indicated by increased passive external rotation. The bear hug test is highly sensitive and specific for evaluating the integrity of the upper subscapularis.

Question 3934

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In the setting of recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the addition of an arthroscopic remplissage (infraspinatus tenodesis) to a Bankart repair is most appropriately indicated for which of the following scenarios?

. Subcritical glenoid bone loss (<15%) with an off-track Hill-Sachs lesion
. Critical glenoid bone loss (>25%) with an on-track Hill-Sachs lesion
. An ALPSA lesion with intact capsular tissue
. Humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament (HAGL)
. Concomitant SLAP tear type II

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subcritical glenoid bone loss (<15%) with an off-track Hill-Sachs lesion


Explanation

Remplissage is indicated for engaging or "off-track" Hill-Sachs lesions in the setting of subcritical glenoid bone loss. It prevents the defect from engaging the anterior glenoid rim during external rotation.

Question 3935

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 50-year-old laborer undergoes a latissimus dorsi tendon transfer for an irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. To function effectively, the transferred latissimus dorsi primarily replicates the function of which native muscle?

. Supraspinatus
. Subscapularis
. Infraspinatus
. Teres major
. Deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus


Explanation

Latissimus dorsi transfer is used for irreparable massive posterosuperior tears to restore external rotation and provide a head-depressing effect. It primarily replicates the function of the infraspinatus and teres minor.

Question 3936

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch and a superior labral tear. Which physical examination finding is most likely to be present?

. Weakness in internal rotation
. Atrophy of both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus
. Isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus
. A positive lift-off test
. A positive Hornblower's sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Weakness in internal rotation


Explanation

A cyst at the spinoglenoid notch compresses the suprascapular nerve after it has provided motor branches to the supraspinatus. This results in isolated denervation, weakness, and atrophy of the infraspinatus.

Question 3937

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The concept of the "suspension bridge" model of the rotator cuff, described by Burkhart, emphasizes the importance of which intact structures in maintaining normal glenohumeral kinematics despite a supraspinatus tear?

. Anterior and posterior bands of the coracoacromial ligament
. Superior glenohumeral ligament and coracohumeral ligament
. Rotator cable and the intact subscapularis/infraspinatus force couple
. Long head of the biceps and superior labrum
. Glenoid concavity and the labral bumper

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior and posterior bands of the coracoacromial ligament


Explanation

The rotator cable acts as a suspension bridge to transfer forces. As long as the anterior (subscapularis) and posterior (infraspinatus) transverse force couples remain intact, shoulder kinematics can remain balanced and functional.

Question 3938

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old man sustains a severe fracture-dislocation of the proximal humerus. During an open reduction through a deltopectoral approach, brisk arterial bleeding is encountered near the inferior border of the subscapularis. Which vessel is most likely injured?

. Anterior circumflex humeral artery
. Posterior circumflex humeral artery
. Suprascapular artery
. Thoracoacromial artery
. Axillary artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior circumflex humeral artery


Explanation

The anterior circumflex humeral artery, often referred to as the "three sisters" along with its venae comitantes, runs laterally across the inferior border of the subscapularis. It must be carefully identified and ligated or cauterized during the deltopectoral approach.

Question 3939

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In performing a superior capsular reconstruction (SCR) for an irreparable supraspinatus tear, the graft is typically attached medially to the superior glenoid and laterally to the greater tuberosity. What is the primary biomechanical goal of this procedure?

. To actively elevate the humerus during abduction
. To prevent superior translation of the humeral head
. To restore the transverse anterior-posterior force couple
. To prevent anterior subluxation of the humeral head
. To act as a tenodesis for the long head of the biceps

Correct Answer & Explanation

. To actively elevate the humerus during abduction


Explanation

SCR utilizes a dermal or fascial graft to statically replace the absent superior capsule. This provides a restraint that prevents superior migration of the humeral head, restoring the anatomic fulcrum for the deltoid.

Question 3940

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During a Latarjet procedure, the coracoid process is osteotomized and transferred to the anterior glenoid. Which muscle tendon units are transferred with the coracoid to provide a dynamic "sling" effect?

. Pectoralis minor and short head of the biceps
. Short head of the biceps and coracobrachialis
. Long head of the biceps and coracobrachialis
. Pectoralis major and coracobrachialis
. Short head of the biceps and subscapularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis minor and short head of the biceps


Explanation

The conjoined tendon, consisting of the short head of the biceps and coracobrachialis, remains attached to the transferred coracoid process. When the arm is abducted and externally rotated, it acts as a dynamic sling across the anteroinferior capsule.