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Question 3781

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Which of the following is a recognized biomechanical or anatomic risk factor for non-contact anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tears in female athletes?

. Decreased Q-angle
. Increased intercondylar notch width
. Decreased knee valgus during landing
. Increased posterior tibial slope
. Dominance of hamstring muscle activation over quadriceps

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased Q-angle


Explanation

Risk factors for ACL tears in females include an increased posterior tibial slope, decreased intercondylar notch width, increased dynamic knee valgus during landing, and quadriceps dominance (poor hamstring activation). Increased posterior slope shifts the tibia anteriorly under axial load, stressing the ACL.

Question 3782

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old recreational tennis player presents with shoulder pain and weakness after a fall on an outstretched arm. Physical exam reveals increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side and a positive lift-off test. Which of the following physical examination tests would also most likely be positive?

. Bear hug test
. O'Brien test
. Speed's test
. Neer impingement test
. Crank test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bear hug test


Explanation

The clinical presentation (increased passive external rotation, positive lift-off test) indicates a subscapularis tendon tear. The bear hug test and belly-press test are also highly specific and sensitive physical examination maneuvers for diagnosing subscapularis pathology.

Question 3783

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher experiences deep shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI confirms a Type II SLAP lesion. Which of the following biomechanical mechanisms is most responsible for this specific injury in overhead throwing athletes?

. Traction from the long head of the biceps during the deceleration phase
. Peel-back forces on the biceps anchor during maximal abduction and external rotation
. Direct impingement of the greater tuberosity against the acromion
. Anterior translation of the humeral head stretching the middle glenohumeral ligament
. Contracture of the anterior capsule leading to superior humeral head migration

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Traction from the long head of the biceps during the deceleration phase


Explanation

In overhead throwers, Type II SLAP tears are primarily caused by a 'peel-back' mechanism. During maximal abduction and external rotation (late cocking phase), the biceps vector shifts posteriorly, transmitting torsional forces that peel the labrum from the glenoid.

Question 3784

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 16-year-old high school soccer player sustains a concussion and is progressing through a stepwise return-to-play protocol. During step 3 (sport-specific exercise), she develops a mild headache. What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

. Continue with step 3 but reduce the intensity of the exercise
. Rest until symptom-free for 24 hours, then resume the protocol at step 3
. Rest until symptom-free for 24 hours, then resume the protocol at step 2
. Immediately advance to step 4 to assess for further symptom exacerbation
. Refer for an emergency non-contrast head CT scan

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Continue with step 3 but reduce the intensity of the exercise


Explanation

If symptoms occur during any stage of a graded return-to-play concussion protocol, the athlete should drop back to the previous asymptomatic level. This is done only after resting for at least 24 hours until symptoms fully resolve.

Question 3785

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old female presents with recurrent instability 18 months after an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. Physical examination reveals a positive Lachman and pivot-shift test. Radiographs and MRI suggest graft failure. What is the most common technical error leading to ACL graft failure?

. Tibial tunnel placed too posteriorly
. Tibial tunnel placed too anteriorly
. Femoral tunnel placed too anteriorly (vertically)
. Femoral tunnel placed too posteriorly (low on the wall)
. Inadequate notchplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibial tunnel placed too posteriorly


Explanation

The most common technical error leading to recurrent instability and ACL graft failure is placing the femoral tunnel too anteriorly or vertically. This results in poor control of rotational instability and increased stress on the graft during knee flexion.

Question 3786

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player with a history of recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations presents for surgical evaluation. A 3D CT scan demonstrates a 27% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with remplissage
. Open coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Arthroscopic thermal capsulorrhaphy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors


Explanation

Anterior glenoid bone loss greater than 20-25% is a critical defect that is associated with unacceptably high failure rates for isolated arthroscopic soft-tissue stabilization. The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is the standard of care for restoring stability in this scenario.

Question 3787

Topic: Knee Sports

A 55-year-old man feels a sudden 'pop' in the posterior aspect of his knee while squatting. MRI reveals a complete radial tear at the posterior root of the medial meniscus. If left untreated, this injury most closely mimics the biomechanical consequences of which of the following?

. Partial meniscectomy
. Total meniscectomy
. Anterior cruciate ligament deficiency
. Posterior cruciate ligament deficiency
. Medial collateral ligament insufficiency

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Partial meniscectomy


Explanation

A complete tear of the meniscal root eliminates the meniscus's ability to convert axial loads into hoop stresses. Biomechanically, this functions identically to a total meniscectomy, leading to rapid compartmental cartilage degradation.

Question 3788

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A high school football player sustains a concussion but conceals his symptoms to stay in the game. He subsequently takes another hit to the head and collapses, rapidly deteriorating into a coma. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism of Second Impact Syndrome?

. Acute epidural hematoma from middle meningeal artery rupture
. Subdural hematoma from bridging vein tearing
. Loss of cerebral blood flow autoregulation leading to malignant brain swelling
. Massive diffuse axonal injury from rotational shear forces
. Delayed post-traumatic hydrocephalus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acute epidural hematoma from middle meningeal artery rupture


Explanation

Second Impact Syndrome occurs when a second head injury is sustained before the symptoms of the first have resolved. This disrupts cerebral autoregulation, causing massive engorgement of the cerebral vasculature and fatal brain herniation.

Question 3789

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old recreational tennis player has symptomatic failure of nonoperative management for an isolated Type II SLAP tear. In this specific demographic, which surgical intervention has been shown to yield the highest patient satisfaction and return to sport rates?

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair using knotless anchors
. Arthroscopic SLAP repair using knotted anchors
. Biceps tenodesis
. Arthroscopic debridement of the labrum without anchor repair
. Open subpectoral biceps tenotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair using knotless anchors


Explanation

In patients older than 40 years, biceps tenodesis demonstrates superior clinical outcomes, better pain relief, and higher return-to-sport rates compared to SLAP repair, which carries a higher risk of postoperative stiffness in this age group.

Question 3790

Topic: Knee Sports

A 28-year-old skier presents with acute knee pain after a twisting injury. On physical examination, the dial test shows 15 degrees of increased external rotation on the injured side at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. This examination finding is most consistent with an isolated injury to which of the following structures?

. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterolateral corner
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Medial collateral ligament
. Posteromedial corner

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

A positive dial test (increased external rotation of >10 degrees compared to the contralateral side) at 30 degrees of flexion, but not at 90 degrees, indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. If it is positive at both 30 and 90 degrees, it indicates a combined PLC and PCL injury.

Question 3791

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Internal impingement of the shoulder in an elite overhead thrower typically involves the compression of which of the following structures during the late cocking/early acceleration phase?

. Articular-sided supraspinatus/infraspinatus and posterosuperior labrum
. Bursal-sided supraspinatus and the coracoacromial ligament
. Subscapularis tendon and the coracoid process
. Long head of the biceps and the superior labrum
. Anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament and anterior labrum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Articular-sided supraspinatus/infraspinatus and posterosuperior labrum


Explanation

Internal impingement occurs during maximal abduction and external rotation when the greater tuberosity pinches the articular-sided fibers of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons against the posterosuperior glenoid labrum.

Question 3792

Topic: Knee Sports

A 16-year-old female presents with recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. Imaging demonstrates a normal TT-TG distance (12 mm) but an elevated Caton-Deschamps index of 1.5. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate to address her specific pathoanatomy in addition to medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction?

. Medialization of the tibial tubercle
. Lateral retinacular release
. Trochleoplasty
. Distalization of the tibial tubercle
. Anteriorization of the tibial tubercle (Maquet procedure)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medialization of the tibial tubercle


Explanation

A Caton-Deschamps index > 1.2 indicates patella alta, a major risk factor for patellar instability. When performing an MPFL reconstruction in a patient with significant patella alta, distalization of the tibial tubercle should be performed to engage the patella into the trochlea earlier in flexion.

Question 3793

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Following a sport-related concussion, an athlete is evaluated by the team physician. Which of the following factors at the time of initial injury is the strongest and most consistent predictor of a prolonged recovery (lasting greater than 14 days)?

. Loss of consciousness lasting less than 1 minute
. High initial symptom burden or severity on standardized symptom scales
. Immediate retrograde amnesia
. Age greater than 25 years
. Mechanism involving rotational acceleration rather than linear impact

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of consciousness lasting less than 1 minute


Explanation

Extensive literature, including the Concussion in Sport Group consensus statements, identifies that the severity of initial symptoms in the first few days following a concussion is the strongest predictor of a prolonged recovery.

Question 3794

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 25-year-old running back sustains a direct blow to the proximal tibia with his knee flexed. MRI confirms an isolated, Grade II injury of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Immediate arthroscopic PCL reconstruction using an Achilles allograft
. Open PCL repair within 2 weeks of injury
. Cylinder cast immobilization in full extension for 6 weeks
. Physical therapy emphasizing progressive quadriceps strengthening
. Physical therapy emphasizing progressive hamstring strengthening

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate arthroscopic PCL reconstruction using an Achilles allograft


Explanation

Isolated Grade I and II PCL tears are successfully managed non-operatively. Rehabilitation should focus heavily on quadriceps strengthening, as the quadriceps act as a dynamic antagonist to the PCL by resisting posterior tibial translation.

Question 3795

Topic: Knee Sports

An 11-year-old male presents with vague anterior knee pain and catching. Radiographs reveal an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion. In the knee, what is the most common anatomic location for an OCD lesion?

. Lateral aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Central trochlear groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral aspect of the lateral femoral condyle


Explanation

The classic and most common location for osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the knee is the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle (LAME: Lateral Aspect Medial Epicondyle/Condyle).

Question 3796

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 19-year-old collegiate hockey player suffers a first-time anterior shoulder dislocation. It is successfully reduced in the emergency department. If this athlete is treated non-operatively with a sling and physical therapy, what is his approximate risk of recurrent instability?

. 10% to 20%
. 30% to 40%
. 50% to 60%
. 70% to 80%
. Greater than 80%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 10% to 20%


Explanation

Young, contact-sport athletes (particularly males under the age of 20) have extremely high recurrence rates for anterior shoulder instability when treated non-operatively, frequently cited as greater than 80-90%.

Question 3797

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

During the acute neurometabolic cascade of a sport-related concussion, indiscriminate release of excitatory neurotransmitters (such as glutamate) leads to a rapid ionic shift across the neuronal membrane. Which of the following best describes this immediate ionic and metabolic state?

. Massive sodium efflux, potassium influx, and increased cerebral blood flow
. Massive potassium efflux, calcium influx, and decreased cerebral blood flow
. Massive calcium efflux, potassium influx, and increased cerebral blood flow
. Massive potassium efflux, sodium influx, and increased cerebral blood flow
. Massive magnesium efflux, calcium influx, and decreased cerebral blood flow

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Massive sodium efflux, potassium influx, and increased cerebral blood flow


Explanation

The acute neurometabolic cascade of concussion is characterized by glutamate release causing massive potassium efflux and calcium influx. This leads to a local energy crisis as Na+/K+ pumps work in overdrive, exacerbated by a paradoxical decrease in cerebral blood flow.

Question 3798

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

When counseling a high school athlete on graft choices for an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, the surgeon discusses bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft versus hamstring autograft. Which of the following postoperative complications is significantly more common with a BPTB autograft?

. Anterior knee pain
. Deep vein thrombosis
. Graft rupture
. Loss of knee flexion
. Saphenous nerve neuritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior knee pain


Explanation

The most frequent specific complication associated with BPTB autograft, compared to hamstring autograft, is anterior knee pain and pain with kneeling. Saphenous nerve neuritis is more common with hamstring harvest.

Question 3799

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 19-year-old college football player sustains a concussion during a game. Under current guidelines, when is it appropriate for him to begin a graduated return-to-play protocol?

. Immediately after symptoms resolve at rest on the sideline
. After 24 hours of asymptomatic rest
. When neurocognitive testing returns to baseline and he is asymptomatic off all medications
. When he has been asymptomatic for 7 days, regardless of neurocognitive testing scores
. Once his physical examination and pupillary reflexes are normal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediately after symptoms resolve at rest on the sideline


Explanation

A graduated return-to-play protocol should only be initiated once a concussed athlete is completely asymptomatic at rest off all medications, and neurocognitive testing has returned to baseline. Each stage of the return-to-play protocol typically requires 24 hours without symptom recurrence.

Question 3800

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 20-year-old collegiate gymnast is undergoing anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. Which of the following graft choices is associated with the highest rate of postoperative anterior knee pain and difficulty kneeling?

. Bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft
. Hamstring tendon autograft
. Quadriceps tendon autograft
. Achilles tendon allograft
. Tibialis anterior allograft

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft


Explanation

Bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft is historically associated with the highest incidence of anterior knee pain and kneeling morbidity compared to hamstring or quadriceps autografts. Despite this, it remains a popular choice for high-demand athletes due to excellent stability and bone-to-bone healing.