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Question 3721

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

When comparing bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autografts to hamstring autografts for primary ACL reconstruction, BPTB grafts are historically associated with a higher incidence of which of the following complications?

. Graft rupture
. Deep surgical site infection
. Anterior knee pain
. Saphenous nerve injury
. Femoral tunnel widening

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Graft rupture


Explanation

BPTB autografts are associated with a higher incidence of anterior knee pain and pain with kneeling compared to hamstring autografts. Rates of overall clinical stability and graft rupture are generally similar.

Question 3722

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 28-year-old baseball pitcher undergoes shoulder arthroscopy. A partial articular-sided supraspinatus tendon avulsion (PASTA) involving 60% of the tendon thickness is identified. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Debridement alone
. Acromioplasty alone
. Coracoid transfer
. Completion of the tear and formal repair
. Biceps tenodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Debridement alone


Explanation

For articular-sided partial rotator cuff tears involving greater than 50% of the tendon thickness, completion of the tear and formal repair (or an in situ repair) is recommended. Debridement alone is insufficient for high-grade tears and has higher failure rates.

Question 3723

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Compared to single-row repair, biomechanical studies of double-row rotator cuff repair demonstrate which of the following characteristics?

. Decreased footprint contact area
. Higher construct stiffness and ultimate load to failure
. Increased gap formation under cyclic loading
. Lower resistance to shear forces
. Increased type II collagen synthesis at the enthesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased footprint contact area


Explanation

Biomechanical studies show that double-row rotator cuff repairs provide higher construct stiffness, increased footprint contact area, and decreased gap formation compared to single-row repairs. However, demonstrating superior long-term clinical outcomes remains controversial.

Question 3724

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In the evaluation of chronic rotator cuff tears, which of the following MRI findings is the most significant predictor of structural failure after an attempted rotator cuff repair?

. Acromioclavicular joint arthritis
. Type 2 acromion morphology
. High-grade fatty infiltration (Goutallier stage 3 or 4)
. Severe subacromial bursitis
. Biceps tendinopathy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acromioclavicular joint arthritis


Explanation

High-grade fatty infiltration (Goutallier stage 3 or 4) and severe muscle atrophy are strong independent predictors of poor tendon healing, persistent weakness, and structural failure following rotator cuff repair.

Question 3725

Topic: Knee Sports

During surgical reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee, the surgeon must reconstruct the primary static stabilizer to varus stress. Which structure inserts on the lateral aspect of the fibular head, anterior to the popliteofibular ligament?

. Biceps femoris tendon
. Iliotibial band
. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
. Popliteus tendon
. Lateral head of gastrocnemius

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Biceps femoris tendon


Explanation

The lateral collateral ligament (LCL) is the primary static stabilizer to varus stress. It originates on the lateral femoral epicondyle and inserts on the lateral aspect of the fibular head, anterior to the popliteofibular ligament insertion.

Question 3726

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old man presents with acute, severe shoulder pain that lasted for two weeks, followed by painless weakness in external rotation and forward elevation. MRI shows no rotator cuff tear but diffuse edema in the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Parsonage-Turner syndrome (neuralgic amyotrophy)
. Quadrilateral space syndrome
. Spinoglenoid notch cyst
. Chronic massive rotator cuff tear
. Cervical radiculopathy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Parsonage-Turner syndrome (neuralgic amyotrophy)


Explanation

Parsonage-Turner syndrome (idiopathic brachial neuritis) is characterized by an acute onset of severe shoulder pain followed by painless weakness and muscle atrophy. MRI typically shows denervation edema in the affected muscles without a mechanical cause.

Question 3727

Topic: Knee Sports

The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is composed of two primary bundles. Which statement accurately describes the tensioning pattern of the larger bundle during normal knee range of motion?

. The anterolateral bundle is tight in flexion
. The anterolateral bundle is tight in extension
. The posteromedial bundle is tight in flexion
. Both bundles maintain constant tension throughout range of motion
. The anterolateral bundle functions strictly as a secondary stabilizer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The anterolateral bundle is tight in flexion


Explanation

The PCL consists of the larger anterolateral bundle (ALB) and smaller posteromedial bundle (PMB). The ALB is predominantly tight in knee flexion, while the PMB is tight in knee extension.

Question 3728

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A patient complains of anterior shoulder pain exacerbated by forward elevation, adduction, and internal rotation ("cross-body" movement). MRI reveals narrowing of the coracohumeral interval to 5 mm and subscapularis tendinosis. This presentation is most consistent with:

. Subacromial impingement
. Subcoracoid impingement
. Internal impingement
. Acromioclavicular arthrosis
. Superior labrum anterior to posterior (SLAP) tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subacromial impingement


Explanation

Subcoracoid impingement classically presents with anterior shoulder pain exacerbated by a cross-body position (adduction and internal rotation). A coracohumeral interval of less than 6 mm on axial MRI supports the diagnosis.

Question 3729

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 24-year-old athlete undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. If the femoral tunnel is inadvertently placed too far anteriorly, what is the most likely biomechanical consequence during range of motion?

. Graft lengthening and abnormal tightness in flexion
. Graft lengthening and abnormal tightness in extension
. Increased laxity in both flexion and extension
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) impingement in flexion
. Graft failure secondary to intercondylar notch impingement in extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Graft lengthening and abnormal tightness in flexion


Explanation

An anteriorly placed femoral tunnel causes the ACL graft to become excessively tight in flexion. This leads to a significant loss of knee flexion, altered kinematics, and potential graft stretching or failure over time.

Question 3730

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 65-year-old man presents with chronic shoulder weakness. Magnetic resonance imaging reveals a massive, retracted tear involving both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons. Medial retraction of the supraspinatus tendon past the glenoid rim places which of the following structures at the greatest risk of tethering or traction injury?

. Axillary nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Long thoracic nerve
. Radial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

Massive, retracted tears of the posterosuperior rotator cuff can cause traction and tethering of the suprascapular nerve at the suprascapular or spinoglenoid notch, potentially leading to further denervation and muscle atrophy.

Question 3731

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 19-year-old soccer player sustains a valgus injury to his left knee. Examination shows 10 mm of medial joint space opening at 30 degrees of flexion with a firm endpoint, but no opening at 0 degrees of flexion. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Immediate surgical repair of the superficial medial collateral ligament
. Primary repair of the deep medial collateral ligament
. Hinged knee brace and early functional rehabilitation
. Rigid cylinder cast for 6 weeks
. Reconstruction of the medial collateral ligament with a hamstring autograft

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate surgical repair of the superficial medial collateral ligament


Explanation

An isolated grade II medial collateral ligament (MCL) sprain (opening at 30 degrees but stable at 0 degrees) is highly responsive to nonoperative management with a hinged knee brace and early functional rehabilitation.

Question 3732

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old weightlifter feels a sudden pop in his shoulder while performing heavy bench presses. Physical examination reveals significantly increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side and a positive belly-press test. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?

. Supraspinatus tendon
. Infraspinatus tendon
. Teres minor tendon
. Subscapularis tendon
. Long head of the biceps tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus tendon


Explanation

The subscapularis is the primary internal rotator of the shoulder. A tear typically results in increased passive external rotation, weakness in internal rotation, and a positive belly-press or lift-off test.

Question 3733

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

During an isolated posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction using an Achilles tendon allograft, the surgeon utilizes a tibial inlay technique rather than a transtibial tunnel technique. What is the primary biomechanical advantage of the tibial inlay technique?

. Decreased risk of iatrogenic popliteal artery injury
. Elimination of the acute "killer turn" angle at the posterior tibial aperture
. Increased overall length of the graft construct
. Avoidance of physeal damage in skeletally immature patients
. Better visualization of the anatomical femoral footprint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased risk of iatrogenic popliteal artery injury


Explanation

The tibial inlay technique avoids the acute angle (the "killer turn") that the graft must make at the posterior tibial tunnel aperture in a transtibial technique, reducing the risk of graft attenuation and failure.

Question 3734

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 70-year-old patient with a chronic rotator cuff tear is evaluated for potential surgical repair. Preoperative MRI demonstrates Goutallier stage 4 fatty infiltration of the infraspinatus muscle. Which of the following best describes this finding and its clinical implications?

. Less fat than muscle; excellent prognosis for structural repair
. Equal amounts of fat and muscle; indicates a need for tendon transfer
. More fat than muscle; associated with high rates of structural failure post-repair
. No fat present; requires immediate repair to prevent irreversible atrophy
. Fat isolated strictly to the subdeltoid bursa; does not affect repair integrity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Less fat than muscle; excellent prognosis for structural repair


Explanation

Goutallier stage 4 signifies there is more fat than muscle in the rotator cuff belly. This high-grade fatty infiltration is largely irreversible and strongly correlates with poor functional outcomes and high re-tear rates following repair.

Question 3735

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old active manual laborer undergoes arthroscopic repair of a supraspinatus tear and is found to have a concurrent high-grade partial tear of the long head of the biceps tendon. He is heavily reliant on arm strength and explicitly expresses concern regarding postoperative cosmetic deformity and muscle cramping. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for the biceps tendon?

. Simple biceps tenotomy
. Biceps tenodesis
. Type II SLAP repair
. Debridement of the biceps tendon while leaving the anchor intact
. Coracoid transfer procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Simple biceps tenotomy


Explanation

Biceps tenodesis maintains the length-tension relationship of the biceps muscle, significantly decreasing the risk of the "Popeye" deformity and biceps cramping that can occur with a simple tenotomy, especially in younger or highly active patients.

Question 3736

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate football player sustains a direct blow to the anteromedial aspect of his knee. Examination reveals a positive dial test at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetrical external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. Which structural injury is most consistent with these physical examination findings?

. Isolated anterior cruciate ligament tear
. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament tear
. Isolated posterolateral corner injury
. Isolated medial collateral ligament tear
. Combined posterior cruciate ligament and posterolateral corner injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated anterior cruciate ligament tear


Explanation

An isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury results in increased external rotation (a positive dial test) at 30 degrees of flexion but normal rotation at 90 degrees. If the dial test is positive at both 30 and 90 degrees, a combined PLC and PCL injury is present.

Question 3737

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Incorporating the concept of margin convergence during the repair of a massive, U-shaped rotator cuff tear provides which of the following primary biomechanical benefits?

. Increases the tension on the remaining free margin of the tendon to be repaired to the greater tuberosity
. Decreases strain on the repair by reducing the size of the defect and decreasing tension at the tendon-bone interface
. Shifts the force vector of the suprascapular nerve anteriorly to prevent tethering
. Promotes the rapid conversion of type III collagen to type I collagen at the medial footprint
. Prevents superior migration of the humeral head by dynamically tenodesing the biceps tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increases the tension on the remaining free margin of the tendon to be repaired to the greater tuberosity


Explanation

Margin convergence involves the side-to-side suturing of a U-shaped rotator cuff tear. This effectively reduces the overall size of the defect and significantly decreases the strain and tension at the tendon-bone interface when the free margin is ultimately repaired.

Question 3738

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Compared to a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft, the use of a non-irradiated tibialis anterior allograft for anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction in a 16-year-old competitive athlete is associated with a significantly higher risk of which of the following complications?

. Anterior knee pain during kneeling
. Iatrogenic patellar fracture
. Clinical graft rupture
. Postoperative arthrofibrosis
. Deep surgical site infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior knee pain during kneeling


Explanation

The use of allografts in young, highly active competitive athletes has been consistently shown to have a significantly higher rate of clinical failure and graft rupture compared to autografts, likely due to delayed biological incorporation and altered remodeling.

Question 3739

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 72-year-old woman presents with severe shoulder pain and pseudoparalysis. Radiographs show significant superior migration of the humeral head with articulation against the acromion. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to performing a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty in this patient?

. Irreparable massive supraspinatus tear
. Advanced fatty infiltration of the infraspinatus muscle
. Non-functioning deltoid muscle secondary to axillary nerve palsy
. Intact and functioning subscapularis tendon
. End-stage glenohumeral osteoarthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Irreparable massive supraspinatus tear


Explanation

A functioning deltoid muscle and an intact axillary nerve are absolute prerequisites for a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. The biomechanics of the reverse implant rely entirely on the deltoid to elevate the arm in the absence of a functioning rotator cuff.

Question 3740

Topic: Knee Sports

In ACL reconstruction utilizing a quadrupled hamstring graft and a cortical suspension button (e.g., Endobutton) for femoral fixation, the "bungee cord effect" and "windshield wiper effect" are established mechanisms that most commonly lead to which of the following postoperative radiographic findings?

. Premature distal femoral physeal closure
. Development of patella baja
. Femoral and tibial tunnel widening
. Heterotopic ossification in the intercondylar notch
. Sclerosis of the medial femoral condyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Premature distal femoral physeal closure


Explanation

Cortical suspensory fixation techniques place the fixation point far from the joint line, allowing for micromotion of the graft within the tunnel (the bungee cord and windshield wiper effects). This micromotion is a primary cause of postoperative tunnel widening.