5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with persistent shoulder pain. MRI confirms a Type II SLAP tear. After failing conservative management, surgical intervention is planned. To minimize the risk of post-operative stiffness and reoperation in this demographic, what is the preferred procedure?

A 22-year-old competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 28% bone loss of the anterior/inferior glenoid. Which surgical procedure is most appropriate?

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. Examination reveals an intact subscapularis and deltoid, but he has significant weakness in active external rotation and forward elevation. Which of the following tendon transfers is the most appropriate surgical treatment to restore function?

A 22-year-old competitive rugby player with a history of recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations undergoes advanced imaging. A 3D CT scan reveals a 28% anterior glenoid bone defect. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical intervention?

A 21-year-old collegiate wrestler has experienced multiple anterior shoulder dislocations. A recent CT scan indicates 30% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention to prevent recurrent instability?

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player with a history of multiple recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations undergoes evaluation. A CT scan with 3D reconstruction reveals a 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss.

Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management?

A 22-year-old collegiate football player presents with his third anterior shoulder dislocation. Imaging reveals an engaged Hill-Sachs lesion and 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 45-year-old laborer with chronic shoulder pain has failed 6 months of physical therapy. MRI demonstrates a Type II SLAP tear without rotator cuff pathology. Based on recent literature, which surgical intervention provides the most reliable functional outcome in this demographic?

A 72-year-old man presents with chronic shoulder pain and an inability to actively raise his arm above 45 degrees. He has a positive drop arm sign. MRI reveals a massive, retracted, and irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear with fatty infiltration of the infraspinatus and teres minor. The subscapularis is intact. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

A 21-year-old collegiate linebacker presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. An en face 3D CT scan of the glenoid demonstrates significant anterior bone loss. At what percentage of anterior glenoid bone loss is an isolated arthroscopic Bankart repair generally considered to have an unacceptably high failure rate, warranting a bony augmentation procedure?

A 25-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with deep shoulder pain and decreased throwing velocity. Physical examination reveals a positive O'Brien test. MRI arthrography shows a Type II SLAP tear. Which of the following biomechanical forces is most frequently implicated in causing this injury during the late cocking phase of throwing?

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan imaging demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher reports posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI arthrography reveals posterosuperior labral fraying and a partial-thickness articular-sided supraspinatus tear. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism of this injury pattern?

A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle and painless weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. At what anatomical location is this cyst most likely compressing the suprascapular nerve?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with his fourth anterior shoulder dislocation. A 3D CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention to minimize the risk of recurrent instability?

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with persistent anterior shoulder pain and painful catching despite 6 months of targeted physical therapy and NSAIDs. An MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP lesion. He has no other rotator cuff pathology. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

Fresh frozen allograft is commonly used in orthopedic reconstructive procedures. Which of the following properties is preserved in a fresh frozen allograft compared to an autograft?

Following a marrow-stimulating procedure (e.g., microfracture) for a full-thickness chondral defect, the resulting repair tissue is predominantly composed of: