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Question 3441

Topic: Knee Sports

A 12-year-old boy presents with vague, activity-related anterior knee pain. Radiographs reveal a juvenile osteochondritis dissecans (JOCD) lesion. What is the most common anatomic location for this lesion?

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Central weight-bearing dome of the medial femoral condyle
. Inferior pole of the patella
. Lateral aspect of the lateral tibial plateau

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle


Explanation

The most common location for osteochondritis dissecans of the knee is the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle, accounting for approximately 70-80% of lesions. In a patient with open physes, initial treatment is usually nonoperative.

Question 3442

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 32-year-old male bodybuilder feels a "pop" in his anterior chest wall while performing a heavy bench press. He presents with bruising and loss of the axillary fold. MRI confirms a pectoralis major tendon rupture. Which portion of the muscle-tendon unit is most commonly injured in this scenario?

. Clavicular head origin at the clavicle
. Sternal head origin at the sternum
. Sternal head inserting on the humerus
. Clavicular head inserting on the humerus
. Musculotendinous junction of the clavicular head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sternal head inserting on the humerus


Explanation

Pectoralis major ruptures almost exclusively occur in weightlifters during the eccentric phase of a bench press. The sternal head at its humeral insertion (tendon or tendon-bone interface) is the most frequently torn component due to high tension placed on its inferior fibers when the arm is extended and externally rotated.

Question 3443

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 40-year-old male undergoes knee arthroscopy for a 1.5 cm symptomatic focal chondral defect on the medial femoral condyle. A microfracture procedure is performed. The tissue that eventually fills this defect is histologically characterized by:

. A predominance of Type II collagen
. A predominance of Type I collagen
. Hyaline cartilage identical to the native surface
. An organized tide mark layer
. High concentrations of aggrecan compared to native cartilage

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A predominance of Type I collagen


Explanation

Microfracture relies on marrow stimulation to form a superclot that matures into repair tissue. This repair tissue is fibrocartilage, which is characterized by a predominance of Type I collagen, unlike native hyaline cartilage which is primarily Type II collagen.

Question 3444

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 19-year-old female soccer player sustains a non-contact knee injury. Which of the following is considered a primary anatomic risk factor for anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) rupture in female athletes?

. Decreased Q-angle
. Decreased posterior tibial slope
. Narrow intercondylar notch width
. Increased medial tibial plateau depth
. Genu varum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Narrow intercondylar notch width


Explanation

Anatomic risk factors for ACL tears include a narrow intercondylar notch, increased posterior tibial slope, and increased anterior pelvic tilt. Female athletes also face neuromuscular risk factors such as ligament dominance and quadriceps dominance.

Question 3445

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan shows a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Arthroscopic Remplissage
. Latarjet procedure
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Superior capsular reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latarjet procedure


Explanation

In contact athletes with critical anterior glenoid bone loss (>20-25%), an arthroscopic Bankart repair has an unacceptably high failure rate. The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is the gold standard for restoring stability in these patients.

Question 3446

Topic: Knee Sports

A 50-year-old patient sustains a medial meniscus posterior root tear. Biomechanical studies have demonstrated that this injury alters knee contact pressures most similarly to which of the following conditions?

. Total meniscectomy
. Partial meniscectomy
. Anterior cruciate ligament tear
. Medial collateral ligament tear
. Chondromalacia patellae

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total meniscectomy


Explanation

A posterior root tear of the medial meniscus disrupts hoop stresses, leading to radial extrusion of the meniscus. Biomechanically, this results in peak contact pressures and contact areas equivalent to a total meniscectomy.

Question 3447

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination shows increased external rotation and a 25-degree loss of internal rotation compared to the contralateral side. What is the primary pathologic mechanism of this condition?

. Anterior capsular contracture
. Contracture of the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Subscapularis tearing
. Acromioclavicular joint arthrosis
. Subacromial impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Contracture of the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament


Explanation

Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) in throwers is primarily caused by contracture of the posterior capsule and posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL). This shifts the glenohumeral contact point posterosuperiorly, leading to internal impingement.

Question 3448

Topic: Knee Sports

A 16-year-old female sustains an acute lateral patellar dislocation. She is scheduled for medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction. The normal anatomic femoral origin of the MPFL is located:

. Anterior to the medial epicondyle
. Between the medial epicondyle and adductor tubercle
. Proximal to the adductor tubercle
. Distal to the superficial medial collateral ligament attachment
. On the posterior aspect of the medial femoral condyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Between the medial epicondyle and adductor tubercle


Explanation

The femoral attachment of the MPFL is located in a saddle-like depression between the adductor tubercle (superiorly) and the medial epicondyle (inferiorly). Properly placing the femoral tunnel here is critical for restoring normal patellofemoral kinematics.

Question 3449

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old manual laborer has a massive, retracted, and irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has intact subscapularis function and severe external rotation weakness. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention to restore active external rotation?

. Pectoralis major transfer
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Lower trapezius transfer
. Superior capsular reconstruction
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latissimus dorsi transfer


Explanation

Latissimus dorsi transfer is indicated for younger, active patients with irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears to restore active external rotation and forward elevation. An intact or reparable subscapularis is a prerequisite for success.

Question 3450

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 25-year-old professional soccer player has a symptomatic 3.5 cm² full-thickness chondral defect on the weight-bearing surface of the medial femoral condyle. Which of the following treatments provides the most durable long-term hyaline-like cartilage repair for a lesion of this size?
. Microfracture
. Autologous chondrocyte implantation (ACI)
. Osteochondral autograft transfer (OATS)
. Arthroscopic debridement
. Particulated juvenile articular cartilage allograft

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Autologous chondrocyte implantation (ACI)


Explanation

For large (> 2-3 cm²), full-thickness articular cartilage defects in highly active patients, Autologous Chondrocyte Implantation (ACI) or osteochondral allografting is recommended. Microfracture and OATS are typically reserved for smaller lesions (< 2 cm²).

Question 3451

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old recreational tennis player has a symptomatic Type II SLAP tear that has failed conservative management. Current literature suggests that compared to primary SLAP repair, primary biceps tenodesis in this age group will likely result in:

. Higher rates of postoperative stiffness
. Lower return to sport rates
. Higher patient satisfaction and lower reoperation rates
. Increased risk of glenohumeral arthrosis
. Decreased elbow flexion strength

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Higher patient satisfaction and lower reoperation rates


Explanation

In patients older than 35-40 years with Type II SLAP tears, primary biceps tenodesis has been shown to yield higher patient satisfaction, lower rates of postoperative stiffness, and lower reoperation rates compared to SLAP repair.

Question 3452

Topic: Knee Sports

A 30-year-old male sustains a dashboard injury to his knee. Examination reveals a posterior sag sign and a posterior drawer test showing 8 mm of posterior tibial translation with a firm endpoint. There is no other ligamentous laxity.

What is the recommended initial management?

. Immediate surgical reconstruction of the PCL
. Protected weight-bearing and focused quadriceps rehabilitation
. Hamstring strengthening program
. Primary repair of the PCL
. Application of a cylinder cast in 30 degrees of flexion for 6 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Protected weight-bearing and focused quadriceps rehabilitation


Explanation

An isolated Grade II PCL tear (5-10 mm of posterior translation) is typically treated non-operatively. Rehabilitation focuses on resolving swelling, regaining motion, and strengthening the quadriceps to counteract posterior tibial translation.

Question 3453

Topic: Knee Sports

A 26-year-old soccer player undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. Six months postoperatively, she reports persistent stiffness and restricted knee flexion. What is the most common cause of technical failure leading to loss of flexion in ACL reconstruction?

. Inadequate graft tensioning
. Femoral tunnel placed too anteriorly
. Tibial tunnel placed too posteriorly
. Failure of fixation hardware
. Premature return to sport

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral tunnel placed too anteriorly


Explanation

The most common cause of technical failure in ACL reconstruction is non-anatomic tunnel placement. A femoral tunnel placed too anteriorly results in increased graft tension during flexion, leading to restricted knee motion or eventual graft stretching and rupture.

Question 3454

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 25-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Imaging and diagnostic arthroscopy reveal an anteroinferior glenoid bone loss of 28%. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate to restore stability and minimize recurrence in this patient?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with capsulorrhaphy
. Open Bankart repair
. Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer)
. Remplissage procedure alone
. Subscapularis advancement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer)


Explanation

In the setting of critical glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25%), isolated soft tissue stabilization (Bankart repair) has an unacceptably high failure rate. A bone-block augmentation procedure, such as the Latarjet procedure, is indicated to restore the glenoid arc and provide a dynamic sling effect.

Question 3455

Topic: Knee Sports

A 50-year-old male presents with acute onset of medial joint line pain in his knee after a deep squat. MRI reveals a medial meniscus posterior root tear with 4 mm of meniscal extrusion. Biomechanically, this injury is most similar to which of the following conditions?

. A stable longitudinal tear of the medial meniscus
. A radial tear of the anterior horn of the medial meniscus
. Total medial meniscectomy
. Partial anterior meniscectomy
. Isolated anterior cruciate ligament deficiency

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total medial meniscectomy


Explanation

A posterior root tear of the medial meniscus completely disrupts circumferential hoop stresses, causing meniscal extrusion under axial load. Biomechanical studies demonstrate that this loss of hoop tension results in joint contact pressures and kinematics equivalent to a total medial meniscectomy.

Question 3456

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 14-year-old boy underwent in situ pinning for a stable SCFE 6 months ago. He now presents with worsening hip pain, a severe limp, and profound global restriction of hip motion. Radiographs show concentric narrowing of the joint space to less than 3 mm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Avascular necrosis (AVN)
. Chondrolysis
. Septic arthritis
. Implant failure
. Femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chondrolysis


Explanation

Chondrolysis is characterized by severe joint stiffness and diffuse joint space narrowing on radiographs. It is a known complication of SCFE, highly associated with unrecognized pin penetration into the joint space.

Question 3457

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 25-year-old male presents with groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. He has a history of mild SCFE treated with in situ pinning at age 13. Radiographs show a prominent alpha angle and a "pistol grip" deformity. What type of femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) is most likely occurring?

. Pincer impingement
. Cam impingement
. Ischiofemoral impingement
. Subspine impingement
. Psoas impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cam impingement


Explanation

SCFE commonly alters the proximal femoral anatomy, leaving a prominent metaphysis at the anterolateral head-neck junction. This leads to classic symptomatic Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement.

Question 3458

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 13-year-old girl underwent an uncomplicated in situ pinning for a stable SCFE 6 months ago. She now returns with a stiff, painful hip and severe limitation in all planes of motion. Radiographs demonstrate profound global joint space narrowing (less than 3 mm). What is the most likely etiology of her current condition?

. Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head
. Chondrolysis of the hip joint
. Late-onset septic arthritis
. Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)
. Hardware failure and backing out of the screw

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chondrolysis of the hip joint


Explanation

Chondrolysis is characterized by an acute loss of articular cartilage, presenting with severe multidirectional stiffness and concentric joint space narrowing (<3mm). It is strongly associated with unrecognized intra-articular hardware penetration during SCFE pinning.

Question 3459

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 6-year-old boy presents with a "snapping" and painful lateral left knee. MRI demonstrates a discoid lateral meniscus. During arthroscopy, the meniscus is noted to be hypermobile due to a lack of posterior coronary ligament attachments, with its only posterior attachment being the meniscofemoral ligament. Which variant of discoid meniscus does this represent?

. Incomplete variant
. Complete variant
. Wrisberg variant
. Bucket-handle variant
. Discoid medial meniscus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wrisberg variant


Explanation

The Wrisberg variant of a discoid meniscus lacks the normal posterior capsular attachments (coronary ligaments). Its only posterior attachment is the meniscofemoral ligament of Wrisberg, leading to hypermobility and a snapping sensation.

Question 3460

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 15-year-old track athlete experiences a sudden 'pop' and intense pain in his right groin while sprinting. Radiographs reveal an avulsion fracture of the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS). Which of the following muscles is responsible for this avulsion?

. Sartorius
. Rectus femoris
. Gluteus medius
. Iliopsoas
. Hamstrings

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rectus femoris


Explanation

The rectus femoris has its direct head origin on the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS) and is responsible for avulsion fractures at this site. The sartorius avulses the ASIS, and the hamstrings avulse the ischial tuberosity.