5. Sports Medicine MCQs

A 32-year-old recreational skier presents with anterior shoulder instability. Imaging shows an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion and 10 percent anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 14-year-old male with wide-open physes sustains a midsubstance ACL tear. Which of the following graft choices and techniques minimizes the risk of growth arrest?

When performing an arthroscopic Bankart repair, the anteroinferior labrum is mobilized and repaired. The suture anchors should ideally be placed at which location to maximize biomechanical stability?

A patient undergoes PCL reconstruction utilizing an inlay technique for tibial fixation. This approach specifically minimizes the risk of which of the following complications compared to a transtibial tunnel technique?

A 24-year-old male sustains a knee injury resulting in a dimple sign on the medial joint line with valgus stress. MRI reveals an MCL tear with the distal end of the superficial MCL displaced superficial to the pes anserinus. What is this lesion called, and what is its clinical significance?

A 20-year-old gymnast presents with multidirectional shoulder instability. She has failed 6 months of supervised physical therapy. An examination under anesthesia demonstrates 3+ inferior translation and a positive sulcus sign. What is the preferred surgical treatment?

During an ACL reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft, a non-displaced fracture of the distal patellar pole occurs intraoperatively while harvesting the bone plug. What is the most appropriate management?

A 25-year-old professional rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. CT imaging reveals 28% glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 22-year-old female presents 6 months after an uncomplicated anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction with a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. She complains of an inability to fully straighten her knee and an audible clunk at terminal extension. What is the most likely etiology?

During a posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction, the surgeon evaluates the native anatomy to properly place the graft bundles. Which of the following statements regarding the normal biomechanics of the PCL is correct?

A 30-year-old male sustains a traumatic knee injury. On examination, a Dial test is performed. There is 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. This finding is most indicative of:

A 45-year-old male presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation following a seizure. CT scan reveals a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 35% of the humeral head articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 9-year-old female soccer player (Tanner stage 1) sustains a midsubstance ACL tear. The family wishes to proceed with surgical intervention. Which of the following techniques minimizes the risk of premature physeal closure?

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and decreased throwing velocity. MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP lesion. After a failed 4-month course of focused physical therapy, the most appropriate surgical treatment is:

A 19-year-old collegiate football player sustains an isolated Grade II PCL tear based on physical examination and MRI. What is the best initial management strategy?

Following an open Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, a patient complains of new-onset numbness along the lateral aspect of the forearm and weakness in elbow flexion. Which nerve was most likely injured during the coracoid transfer?

A 20-year-old male undergoes an MR arthrogram for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. The radiologist notes an intact anterior periosteal sleeve with the anterior labrum medially displaced and healed to the glenoid neck. This pathoanatomy is best described as a:

A patient is evaluated 1 year after an ACL reconstruction. The Lachman test is negative, but a pivot shift test is prominently positive. Radiographs demonstrate that the femoral tunnel is positioned at the 12 o'clock position in the coronal plane. This tunnel placement primarily fails to control which biomechanical force?

An 18-year-old athlete with recurrent anterior shoulder instability has a normal-appearing anterior labrum on MRI. However, a "J-sign" is noted on the MR arthrogram, showing fluid extravasation into the axillary pouch. Which of the following lesions is most likely present?