5. Sports Medicine MCQs

According to the Goutallier classification for rotator cuff fatty infiltration evaluated on MRI, a supraspinatus muscle belly that demonstrates equal amounts of fat and muscle tissue is classified as:

Following a concussive brain injury in an athlete, the initial neurometabolic cascade is characterized by an abrupt and massive release of which neurotransmitter, ultimately leading to a toxic intracellular influx of calcium?

A 10-year-old male (Tanner stage 1) sustains a complete ACL tear playing soccer. He has significant subjective instability. To minimize the risk of premature physeal closure and growth arrest, which of the following surgical techniques is most appropriate?

A 45-year-old recreational weightlifter feels a sharp pop in his anterior shoulder during a heavy bench press. Exam reveals increased passive external rotation and a distinctly positive belly-press test.

What other associated pathology must the surgeon be highly suspicious of during arthroscopic evaluation?

During an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, the surgeon inadvertently places the femoral tunnel too anteriorly (shallow) in the intercondylar notch. What is the most likely biomechanical consequence of this tunnel malposition?

A 24-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Advanced imaging reveals an 'inverted-pear' shaped glenoid. At what threshold of glenoid bone loss is an arthroscopic Bankart repair generally contraindicated in favor of a bony augmentation procedure like the Latarjet?

Which of the following correctly describes the tensioning pattern of the native posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) bundles during knee range of motion?

A 28-year-old male sustains a traumatic knee injury. On physical examination, the dial test is performed. The examiner notes 15 degrees of increased external rotation of the tibia compared to the contralateral leg at 30 degrees of flexion, and 20 degrees of increased external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. This finding is most indicative of:

A 20-year-old collegiate quarterback is undergoing evaluation for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Imaging demonstrates 15% anterior glenoid bone loss and a large Hill-Sachs lesion. Applying the 'glenoid track' concept, the Hill-Sachs lesion is determined to be 'off-track'. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a locked, painful shoulder following a severe generalized seizure. He holds his arm in internal rotation and adduction, and external rotation is physically blocked. Radiographs reveal a dislocation. What associated bony defect is most likely present?

When counseling a 22-year-old elite soccer player on graft choices for primary ACL reconstruction, which of the following is a well-documented disadvantage of bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft compared to hamstring autograft?

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague, deep shoulder pain and a subjective decrease in pitching velocity. MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP tear. What biomechanical mechanism is primarily responsible for this specific injury in throwing athletes?

During a physical examination of a patient with a suspected posterolateral corner (PLC) injury, the clinician applies a varus stress to the knee at 30 degrees of flexion. Which specific anatomic structure is the primary restraint to this applied force?

A surgeon is performing an open Latarjet procedure for a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability and significant glenoid bone loss. During the mobilization and transfer of the coracoid process, which nerve is at the highest risk of iatrogenic injury due to traction on the conjoint tendon?

The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is composed of two distinct bundles. Which of the following best describes the biomechanical function of the posterolateral (PL) bundle?

A 25-year-old soccer player sustains a twisting injury to his knee. Physical examination reveals a positive Dial test with 15 degrees of increased external rotation compared to the contralateral knee at 30 degrees of flexion, but no side-to-side difference at 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?

A 20-year-old collegiate rugby player with recurrent anterior shoulder instability presents for evaluation. CT scan demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 38-year-old recreational weightlifter complains of deep anterior shoulder pain. MRI confirms an isolated Type II SLAP tear. After failing 6 months of physical therapy, surgical management is planned. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

When performing a posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction using an open tibial inlay technique, the surgeon must be mindful of the popliteal artery. During the posterior approach, between which two muscle intervals is the popliteal neurovascular bundle typically protected?