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Question 3261

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 35-year-old overhead athlete undergoes an MRI of the shoulder which reveals a type II SLAP tear and a paralabral cyst located in the spinoglenoid notch. Which isolated physical examination finding is most likely to be present?

. Isolated weakness in internal rotation
. Isolated weakness in external rotation
. Weakness in both forward elevation and external rotation
. Profound atrophy of the deltoid
. Complete loss of active forward elevation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated weakness in external rotation


Explanation

A paralabral cyst extending into the spinoglenoid notch selectively compresses the distal terminal branch of the suprascapular nerve. This results in isolated denervation of the infraspinatus, presenting clinically as isolated weakness in external rotation.

Question 3262

Topic: Knee Sports
A 29-year-old male sustains a knee dislocation (KD-III) with complete disruption of the ACL, PCL, and MCL. After closed reduction, his ankle-brachial index (ABI) is 0.7. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Immediate multi-ligamentous reconstruction
. Observation and repeat ABI in 4 hours
. CT angiography of the lower extremity
. Application of a spanning external fixator and discharge
. Doppler ultrasound of the popliteal vein

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CT angiography of the lower extremity


Explanation

An ABI less than 0.9 following a knee dislocation indicates a high suspicion for a major arterial injury. CT angiography or a formal arteriogram is urgently indicated to accurately diagnose and localize popliteal artery injury before surgical exploration.

Question 3263

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Following an arthroscopic rotator cuff repair, a patient develops severe, global shoulder stiffness and pain out of proportion to the surgical intervention. Inflammatory markers are completely normal. What is the most effective initial management for this condition?

. Immediate arthroscopic lysis of adhesions
. Oral corticosteroids and gentle physical therapy
. Manipulation under anesthesia
. Intra-articular hyaluronic acid injection
. Revision rotator cuff repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Oral corticosteroids and gentle physical therapy


Explanation

Postoperative adhesive capsulitis following rotator cuff repair is initially best managed conservatively. A short course of oral corticosteroids and a structured physical therapy program focusing on gentle stretching is highly effective and avoids compromising the repair.

Question 3264

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 19-year-old college football player suffers a concussion during a game. He is symptom-free at rest 3 days later. Once the athlete is asymptomatic at rest, how many minimum days are required to complete the standard graduated return-to-play protocol before full-contact gameplay?

. 1 day
. 3 days
. 5 days
. 7 days
. 14 days

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1 day


Explanation

The graduated return-to-play protocol consists of 6 stages. Once asymptomatic (Stage 1), athletes progress through 5 active stages (light aerobic exercise, sport-specific exercise, non-contact drills, full-contact practice, and return to play), with each stage requiring a minimum of 24 hours.

Question 3265

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Which of the following anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction graft choices is most uniquely associated with an increased risk of postoperative patellar fracture?

. Quadrupled hamstring autograft
. Bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft
. Quadriceps tendon autograft with bone block
. Tibialis anterior allograft
. Achilles tendon allograft

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft


Explanation

Bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autografts are associated with a specific risk of postoperative patellar fracture due to the bony harvest from the patella. Quadriceps tendon grafts with bone blocks have a much lower relative risk of patellar fracture.

Question 3266

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old male presents with weakness in external rotation and a massive, retracted posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. Retraction of the supraspinatus tendon medial to the glenoid rim is most likely to cause traction injury to the suprascapular nerve at which of the following anatomical locations?

. Spinoglenoid notch
. Suprascapular notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular space
. Spiral groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

Massive, retracted rotator cuff tears alter the course of the suprascapular nerve. This increases tension primarily at the suprascapular notch due to medial tethering, contributing to nerve dysfunction and subsequent fatty infiltration.

Question 3267

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old rugby player sustains a blow to the anteromedial aspect of his knee while it is fully extended and his foot is planted. Examination reveals a positive dial test at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees compared to the contralateral side. Which structure is predominantly injured?

. Posterolateral corner (PLC)
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Both PLC and PCL
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral corner (PLC)


Explanation

An isolated injury to the posterolateral corner (PLC) results in increased external rotation (positive dial test) at 30 degrees of flexion compared to the contralateral knee. If both the PLC and PCL were injured, external rotation would be increased at both 30 and 90 degrees of flexion.

Question 3268

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Second impact syndrome, a rare but often fatal complication following a premature return to play after a concussion, is primarily driven by which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms?

. Diffuse axonal shearing
. Loss of cerebral autoregulation leading to malignant brain swelling
. Subdural hematoma expansion
. Epidural hematoma from middle meningeal artery rupture
. Delayed cerebral vasospasm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of cerebral autoregulation leading to malignant brain swelling


Explanation

Second impact syndrome occurs when an athlete sustains a second head injury before symptoms from an initial concussion have completely resolved. This triggers a catastrophic loss of cerebral blood flow autoregulation, resulting in rapid vascular engorgement and fatal brain herniation.

Question 3269

Topic: Knee Sports

During a posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction, the surgeon aims to anatomically reconstruct the anterolateral (AL) bundle. Which of the following accurately describes the tensioning pattern of the native AL bundle of the PCL?

. It is tight in extension and lax in flexion
. It is tight in flexion and lax in extension
. It remains isometric throughout the entire arc of motion
. It is tight only during internal tibial rotation
. It is tight only in hyperextension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It is tight in flexion and lax in extension


Explanation

The PCL consists of the larger anterolateral (AL) bundle and the smaller posteromedial (PM) bundle. The AL bundle is tight in flexion and lax in extension, whereas the PM bundle is tight in extension and lax in flexion.

Question 3270

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with shoulder pain. MRI arthrography reveals a partial articular-sided supraspinatus tendon avulsion (PASTA) involving 60% of the tendon footprint. After failing nonoperative management, what is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Debridement of the rotator cuff tear alone
. Subacromial decompression without cuff repair
. In situ repair or completion of the tear followed by formal repair
. Biceps tenodesis alone
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. In situ repair or completion of the tear followed by formal repair


Explanation

For partial articular-sided rotator cuff tears involving greater than 50% of the tendon thickness (or >3-6 mm of the footprint), surgical repair is indicated. This can be successfully performed via an in situ transtendon repair or by completing the tear and performing a standard repair.

Question 3271

Topic: Knee Sports



A 22-year-old female skier sustains a twisting injury to her knee. Radiographs reveal a small avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau (Segond fracture). This radiographic finding is pathognomonic for a concomitant injury to which of the following structures?

. Medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL)
. Posterolateral corner (PLC)
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Iliotibial band

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)


Explanation

A Segond fracture is an avulsion of the anterolateral ligament (ALL) or lateral capsular ligament from the lateral tibial plateau. It is classically associated with an ACL tear, occurring in over 75% to 90% of cases.

Question 3272

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Which of the following components of the Sport Concussion Assessment Tool 5 (SCAT5) is specifically designed to evaluate delayed recall?

. Repeating a string of digits backwards
. Recalling a list of 5 or 10 words provided earlier in the assessment
. Naming the months of the year in reverse order
. Maddocks score questions
. Modified Balance Error Scoring System (mBESS)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Recalling a list of 5 or 10 words provided earlier in the assessment


Explanation

In the SCAT5, delayed recall is tested by asking the athlete to remember and repeat a list of 5 or 10 words that were presented during the immediate memory portion of the cognitive assessment, typically after a 5-minute delay.

Question 3273

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 30-year-old male sustains an isolated grade III medial collateral ligament (MCL) tear of the knee. What is the most appropriate initial management for this injury?
. Immediate primary surgical repair
. Hinged knee brace and early functional rehabilitation
. Cast immobilization in 30 degrees of flexion for 6 weeks
. Surgical reconstruction using hamstring autograft
. Arthroscopic debridement of the torn ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hinged knee brace and early functional rehabilitation


Explanation

The vast majority of isolated Grade III MCL tears heal well with nonoperative management, consisting of a hinged knee brace and early functional rehabilitation. Surgical intervention is typically reserved for multiligamentous injuries, presence of a Stener-like lesion of the MCL, or chronic instability.

Question 3274

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During the physical examination of a patient with suspected rotator cuff pathology, the examiner performs the "belly-press" test. The patient is unable to maintain pressure on their abdomen without bringing their elbow posterior to the mid-coronal plane. This finding indicates weakness of which muscle?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis
. Pectoralis major

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis


Explanation

The belly-press test evaluates the integrity of the subscapularis muscle. A positive test occurs when the patient drops their elbow posteriorly to use shoulder extension (latissimus dorsi/posterior deltoid) rather than internal rotation to press against the abdomen.

Question 3275

Topic: Knee Sports

A 24-year-old athlete sustains a knee injury. On examination, the dial test reveals increased external rotation of the tibia compared to the contralateral side at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetrical external rotation at 90 degrees of knee flexion. This examination finding is most indicative of an isolated injury to which of the following structures?

. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Posterolateral corner
. Combined PCL and posterolateral corner
. Medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral corner


Explanation

A positive dial test at 30 degrees of flexion that normalizes at 90 degrees indicates an isolated injury to the posterolateral corner (PLC). If the test is positive at both 30 and 90 degrees, it suggests a combined PCL and PLC injury.

Question 3276

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During arthroscopic rotator cuff repair, an anatomic restoration of the footprint is desired. The normal supraspinatus footprint on the greater tuberosity has an average medial-to-lateral width of approximately:

. 8 to 10 mm
. 14 to 16 mm
. 22 to 24 mm
. 26 to 28 mm
. 30 to 32 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 14 to 16 mm


Explanation

The supraspinatus footprint is triangular and measures approximately 25 mm in the anterior-to-posterior dimension and 14 to 16 mm in the medial-to-lateral dimension. Restoring this medial-to-lateral width is a primary goal of transosseous-equivalent double-row repair.

Question 3277

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 16-year-old high school football player is diagnosed with a concussion after a helmet-to-helmet collision. According to the current Consensus Statement on Concussion in Sport, when is the athlete allowed to return to full competition?

. The same day if symptoms resolve completely within 15 minutes
. The next day if computerized neurocognitive testing returns to baseline
. Only after completing a 6-step graduated return-to-play protocol once asymptomatic at rest
. After a mandatory 7-day period of absolute cognitive and physical rest regardless of symptoms
. Immediately upon physician clearance, provided there was no loss of consciousness

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Only after completing a 6-step graduated return-to-play protocol once asymptomatic at rest


Explanation

Current guidelines strictly prohibit same-day return to play for concussed athletes. Return to competition is only permitted after the athlete is asymptomatic and successfully completes a 6-step graduated return-to-play protocol, with each step taking at least 24 hours.

Question 3278

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain and weakness. On examination, he is unable to hold his hand pressed against his abdomen when the elbow is brought anterior to the coronal plane. This finding (a positive Bear-hug or Belly-press test) is most sensitive for detecting a tear of which portion of the rotator cuff?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Upper subscapularis
. Lower subscapularis
. Teres minor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lower subscapularis


Explanation

The Belly-press and Bear-hug tests are highly sensitive for detecting tears of the upper portion of the subscapularis tendon. The Lift-off test is more specific for tears involving the lower portion of the subscapularis.

Question 3279

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Second impact syndrome is a rare but potentially fatal complication occurring when a second concussive blow is sustained before full recovery from an initial concussion. The rapid mortality associated with this syndrome is primarily driven by:

. Massive acute epidural hematoma
. Rupture of a pre-existing cerebral aneurysm
. Loss of cerebral autoregulation leading to rapid brain swelling and herniation
. Acute cerebrospinal fluid leak resulting in severe intracranial hypotension
. Progressive cortical axonal shearing and Wallerian degeneration

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of cerebral autoregulation leading to rapid brain swelling and herniation


Explanation

Second impact syndrome causes a fatal loss of cerebral vascular autoregulation. This leads to massive cerebrovascular engorgement, rapid brain edema, increased intracranial pressure, and uncal herniation.

Question 3280

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old soccer player presents with a recurrent knee effusion and instability 4 months after an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction with bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. What is the most common cause of early failure (within 6 months) following ACL reconstruction?

. Biologic graft rejection
. Deep joint infection
. Acute traumatic reinjury
. Surgical error, most commonly non-anatomic tunnel placement
. Failure of graft incorporation at the bone-tendon interface

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgical error, most commonly non-anatomic tunnel placement


Explanation

The most common cause of early ACL reconstruction failure (less than 6 months postoperatively) is surgical error. Non-anatomic tunnel placement, particularly a femoral tunnel that is placed too far anteriorly, places excessive stress on the graft during flexion.