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Question 3121

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 22-year-old soccer player undergoes anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. During rehabilitation, the knee lacks full extension but has normal flexion. The surgeon suspects femoral tunnel malposition. Which of the following femoral tunnel placement errors is most likely responsible for this specific clinical finding?

. Placed too posterior (deep) in the notch
. Placed too anterior (shallow) in the notch
. Placed too proximal on the femoral wall
. Placed at the 12 o'clock position (too vertical)
. Placed too distal on the femoral wall

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Placed too anterior (shallow) in the notch


Explanation

If the femoral tunnel is placed too anterior (shallow) in the intercondylar notch, the distance between the femoral and tibial tunnels increases as the knee extends, causing the graft to become excessively tight in extension (resulting in an extension block) and loose in flexion. A graft placed too vertical (12 o'clock) controls anterior translation but fails to control rotational stability (positive pivot shift).

Question 3122

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He exhibits Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD). MRI arthrogram reveals a partial articular-sided supraspinatus tendon avulsion (PASTA) and superior labral fraying. The primary pathophysiology of his 'internal impingement' involves the abnormal contact between the articular side of the rotator cuff and which of the following structures?

. The coracoacromial ligament
. The anterior-inferior glenoid rim
. The posterosuperior glenoid labrum
. The undersurface of the acromion
. The coracoid process

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The posterosuperior glenoid labrum


Explanation

Internal impingement in overhead throwing athletes occurs during the late cocking phase (maximum abduction and external rotation). In this position, the articular surface of the posterior rotator cuff (supraspinatus/infraspinatus junction) becomes pinched or rubs directly against the posterosuperior glenoid rim and labrum. This is completely distinct from classic subacromial (external) impingement, which involves the bursal surface of the cuff and the undersurface of the acromion or coracoacromial ligament.

Question 3123

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 22-year-old collegiate football player sustains a complete rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and opts for reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft. When comparing this specific graft choice to a quadrupled hamstring autograft, which of the following is the most commonly reported donor-site complication?

. Deep vein thrombosis
. Saphenous nerve neuropraxia
. Anterior knee pain and pain with kneeling
. Decreased terminal knee flexion strength
. Increased incidence of postoperative intra-articular infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior knee pain and pain with kneeling


Explanation

Bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft is considered the gold standard for ACL reconstruction in high-demand athletes due to its rigid bone-to-bone healing and strength. However, its most significant and frequently reported donor-site morbidity is anterior knee pain, particularly pain when kneeling. Hamstring autografts, conversely, are associated with a temporary decrease in deep hamstring flexion strength and potential iatrogenic injury to the infrapatellar branch of the saphenous nerve during graft harvest.

Question 3124

Topic: Knee Sports
A 10-year-old boy (Tanner stage I) sustains an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. His parents opt for surgical reconstruction due to recurrent instability. To minimize the risk of physeal arrest and subsequent growth disturbance, which of the following techniques is most appropriate?
. Transphyseal reconstruction using an autologous bone-patellar tendon-bone graft
. Over-the-top extra-articular tenodesis combined with a transphyseal tibial tunnel
. Epiphyseal-sparing (all-epiphyseal) ACL reconstruction
. Transphyseal reconstruction with an 11-mm soft tissue graft
. Primary ACL repair using a synthetic augmentation device

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Epiphyseal-sparing (all-epiphyseal) ACL reconstruction


Explanation

In a skeletally immature patient with significant remaining growth (e.g., Tanner stage I or II, open physes), ACL reconstruction techniques must minimize the risk of iatrogenic physeal injury. An all-epiphyseal (epiphyseal-sparing) ACL reconstruction or an entirely physeal-sparing technique is indicated to avoid drilling across the femoral and tibial physes. Transphyseal techniques may be considered in older adolescents (Tanner III/IV) but should use soft tissue grafts (not bone plugs). Bone-patellar tendon-bone grafts are contraindicated due to the risk of bone blocks bridging the physis, leading to premature arrest.

Question 3125

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 42-year-old recreational athlete sustains an acute Achilles tendon rupture while playing tennis. He opts for functional rehabilitation utilizing an early weight-bearing protocol in a functional orthosis. Compared to surgical repair, which of the following is true regarding this nonoperative treatment strategy?

. The risk of deep vein thrombosis is significantly higher with surgery
. The re-rupture rate is equivalent when an early functional rehabilitation protocol is employed
. Patients return to work significantly faster with nonoperative treatment
. Surgical repair results in a lower risk of sural nerve injury
. Nonoperative treatment results in superior plantar flexion strength at 2 years

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The re-rupture rate is equivalent when an early functional rehabilitation protocol is employed


Explanation

Recent high-level evidence demonstrates that when acute Achilles tendon ruptures are managed nonoperatively with early functional rehabilitation (early weight-bearing and mobilization in a functional orthosis), the re-rupture rates are equivalent to those of operative repair. Operative repair has a higher rate of overall complications (such as infection and sural nerve injury) but historically had a lower re-rupture rate when compared to prolonged rigid immobilization. With modern functional bracing protocols, the difference in re-rupture rates is no longer statistically significant.

Question 3126

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 19-year-old female collegiate soccer player is undergoing an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. The surgeon discusses the use of a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft versus a hamstring autograft. When comparing these two graft choices, the BTB autograft is generally associated with a higher incidence of:

. Postoperative laxity on KT-1000 testing
. Anterior knee pain and kneeling pain
. Overall graft failure rate
. Hamstring weakness in deep flexion
. Sural nerve neuropraxia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior knee pain and kneeling pain


Explanation

Bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autografts have historically been associated with a higher incidence of donor site morbidity, specifically anterior knee pain and pain with kneeling, compared to hamstring autografts. Rates of graft failure are generally comparable or slightly lower for BTB grafts, and postoperative laxity is often slightly less with BTB grafts due to bone-to-bone healing.

Question 3127

Topic: Knee Sports

During an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, positioning the femoral tunnel too anteriorly (shallow) will result in which of the following graft behaviors during knee range of motion?

. The graft will be tight in flexion and loose in extension
. The graft will be tight in extension and loose in flexion
. The graft will be tight in both flexion and extension
. The graft will be loose in both flexion and extension
. The graft tension will remain isometric throughout the range of motion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The graft will be tight in flexion and loose in extension


Explanation

In ACL reconstruction, an anteriorly (shallow) placed femoral tunnel creates a length mismatch where the graft becomes tight in flexion and loose in extension. Conversely, a posteriorly (deep) placed femoral tunnel results in a graft that is tight in extension and loose in flexion. Optimal isometric placement or anatomic placement avoids these extremes, allowing normal range of motion without over-constraining the joint or leaving it unstable.

Question 3128

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Following a zone II flexor tendon repair of the index finger, a patient is placed in an early active mobilization protocol. Which of the following is the primary physiological advantage of early active motion compared to prolonged immobilization?

. Decreased risk of acute tendon rupture
. Increased tensile strength of the repair and decreased adhesion formation
. Prevention of interphalangeal joint osteoarthritis
. Faster return of sensory nerve function
. Elimination of the need for an orthosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased tensile strength of the repair and decreased adhesion formation


Explanation

Early controlled mobilization following a flexor tendon repair stimulates intrinsic tendon healing, increases the overall tensile strength of the repair, and significantly decreases the formation of restrictive peritendinous adhesions. It does not decrease the risk of rupture (which remains a risk during early motion if overloaded) and has no bearing on sensory nerve recovery or osteoarthritis.

Question 3129

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 42-year-old recreational athlete sustains an acute mid-substance Achilles tendon rupture. After an extensive discussion regarding treatment options, the patient elects for functional rehabilitation (nonoperative management with early weight-bearing in an orthosis) over surgical repair. Based on recent Level I evidence and meta-analyses, how does the expected clinical outcome of this approach compare to open surgical repair?

. Higher rate of rerupture but lower rate of deep infection
. Equivalent rate of rerupture and lower rate of wound complications
. Lower rate of rerupture but higher rate of deep vein thrombosis
. Equivalent rate of wound complications but higher rate of sural nerve injury
. Decreased plantar flexion strength and higher rate of rerupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Equivalent rate of rerupture and lower rate of wound complications


Explanation

Historically, nonoperative treatment of Achilles tendon ruptures was associated with higher rerupture rates. However, modern Level I randomized controlled trials (such as the Willits study) have demonstrated that when an accelerated functional rehabilitation protocol with early mobilization and weight-bearing is utilized, the rerupture rate is equivalent to surgical repair. Furthermore, nonoperative management completely avoids surgical risks, leading to a definitively lower rate of wound complications.

Question 3130

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

When evaluating graft choices for anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, understanding their native biomechanical properties is critical. Compared to the intact native ACL (ultimate tensile load ~2160 N), which of the following graft options has the highest ultimate tensile load at the time of implantation?

. 10-mm bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft
. 10-mm quadriceps tendon autograft
. Fascia lata autograft
. Quadrupled hamstring autograft
. Native iliotibial band

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quadrupled hamstring autograft


Explanation

Biomechanical studies have demonstrated that the quadrupled hamstring autograft (semitendinosus and gracilis) has an ultimate tensile load of approximately 4140 N, which is significantly higher than a 10-mm BPTB graft (~2977 N), quadriceps tendon (~2185-2352 N), and the native ACL (~2160 N). However, it is important to note that despite the high ultimate tensile load, factors such as fixation strength, graft incorporation, and stiffness also dictate the ultimate clinical success.

Question 3131

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 44-year-old recreational weight lifter reports chronic deep pain in his left shoulder that is aggravated by any pressing exercises. He also notes a painful catch in the shoulder occurring with rotational movements. Physical therapy and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for 3 months have failed to provide relief. Examination reveals pain with O'Brien's test but no signs of instability. MRI scans are shown in Figures 4a and 4b. Treatment should now consist of

. arthroscopic repair of a superior labral tear with cyst decompression.
. open excision of the ganglion cyst.
. proximal biceps tenodesis.
. rotator cuff repair.
. anterior stabilization.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. arthroscopic repair of a superior labral tear with cyst decompression.


Explanation

The MRI scans show a large paralabral ganglion cyst in the spinoglenoid notch that communicates with an extensive tear of the glenoid labrum. Snyder and associates have classified superior labral tears into several subtypes that reflect the location and extent of the injury. Arthroscopic repair of the labral tear and aspiration of the ganglion cyst is the treatment of choice. Open excision of the cyst does not address the underlying problem of the labral tear. Snyder SJ, Karzel RP, Delpizzo W: SLAP lesions of the shoulder. Arthroscopy 1990;6:274-279. Piatt BE, Hawkins RJ, Fritz RC, et al: Clinical evaluation and treatment of spinoglenoid notch cysts. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2002;11:600-604. McFarland EG, Kim TK, Savino RM: Clinical assessment of three common tests for superior labral anterior-posterior lesions. Am J Sports Med 2002;30:810-815.

Question 3132

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Examination of a 4-year old child with obstetrical palsy reveals weak deltoids, pectoralis major strength of 4-5, and normal hand function. External rotation of the shoulder is limited. What is the most appropriate surgical procedure to restore external rotation?

. Distal rerouting of the biceps tendon
. Glenohumeral fusion with external rotation
. External rotation osteotomy of the proximal humerus
. Latissimus dorsi and teres major transfer to the posterior rotator cuff
. Latissimus dorsi and teres major transfer to the subscapularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latissimus dorsi and teres major transfer to the posterior rotator cuff


Explanation

Transfer of the latissimus dorsi and teres major to the posterior rotator cuff will restore external rotation and some abduction. The procedure should be performed in children who are approximately age 4 years, following spontaneous recovery and prior to significant stiffness. External rotation osteotomy is more appropriate for an older child. Fusion should not be performed until skeletal maturity. Distal biceps rerouting restores pronation for a supination deformity. Latissimus dorsi and teres major transfer to the subscapularis would accentuate the internal rotation. In younger patients without significant bony deformity, a subscapularis slide or lengthening can restore external rotation. Strecker WB, McAllister JW, Manske PR, Schoenecker PL, Dailey LA: Sever-L'Episcopo transfers in obstetrical palsy: A retrospective review of twenty cases. J Pediatr Orthop 1990;10:442-444.

Question 3133

Topic: Knee Sports

An 18-year-old football halfback reports that he had immediate right knee pain after being tackled 1 week ago. Examination now reveals moderate tenderness over the proximal medial tibia and lateral joint and normal cruciate stability. In evaluating the integrity of the posterolateral knee structures, what is the most reliable examination finding?

. Excessive varus laxity at 30 degrees of flexion
. Reverse pivot shift
. Posterolateral drawer laxity at 90 degrees of flexion
. Asymmetric tibial external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion
. Positive external rotation/recurvatum test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Asymmetric tibial external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion


Explanation

The most reliable test for a relatively isolated posterolateral complex (PLC) injury is the asymmetric tibial external rotation or "dial test." It can be performed with the patient prone or supine. When greater than 10 degrees of external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion is present when compared with the opposite knee, it indicates significant damage to the posterolateral structures. Asymmetric external rotation, which is also present at 90 degrees of flexion, indicates injury to the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) as well. Varus laxity may indicate significant damage to both the PLC and PCL. Approximately 35% of the normal population may have a reverse pivot shift when examined under anesthesia; therefore, it is considered a less specific test. The external rotation/recurvatum and posterolateral drawer tests are adjunctive in assessing isolated posterolateral laxity but are not thought to be as reliable. Veltri DM, Warren RF: Isolated and combined posterior cruciate injuries. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1993;1:67-75.

Question 3134

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A woman with a neck and chest tumor has weakness in the biceps and paresthesias in the thumb. Brachioradialis and infraspinatus function are normal. The lesion is affecting which of the following structures?

Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 7 - Figure 69

. C6
. Upper trunk
. Middle trunk
. Posterior cord
. Lateral cord

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral cord


Explanation

The lateral cord terminates as the musculocutaneous nerve and also contributes sensory fibers to the median nerve. Involvement of the C6 root or upper trunk could potentially cause weakness of the infraspinatus and the brachioradialis. The middle trunk and the posterior cord do not contribute motor fibers to the thumb or sensory fibers to the thumb.

Question 3135

Topic: Knee Sports

A 15-year-old boy reports feeling a pop and notes sudden giving way of the left knee while playing basketball. He has immediate pain and swelling in the knee. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 32. A small avulsion fragment from the lateral tibial margin is the only finding. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 5 - Figure 107

. Avulsion of the lateral collateral ligament
. Avulsion of the pes anserinus
. Avulsion of the iliotibial band
. Tear of the anterior cruciate ligament
. Tear of the posterior cruciate ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avulsion of the lateral collateral ligament


Explanation

An avulsion fracture from the lateral tibial margin carries the eponym Segond fracture and is pathognomonic for an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. The fragment is located posterior to Gerdy's tubercle and is superior and anterior to the fibular head. It represents an avulsion of the lateral capsular ligament of the knee and is caused by the same mechanism that causes the ACL tear. The pes anserinus is the insertion point of the medial hamstrings and would not be affected in a lateral avulsion injury. The posterior cruciate ligament may be seen on a lateral view if associated with an avulsion fragment, but a tear of the PCL generally cannot be diagnosed on an AP view. The insertion of the iliotibial band is broad and is unlikely to produce an avulsion injury such as that seen in the radiograph. This view is not consistent with the appearance of a lateral collateral ligament injury. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 533-557.

Question 3136

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 22-year-old college baseball pitcher reports the recent onset of anterior and posterosuperior shoulder pain in his throwing shoulder. Examination shows a 15-degree loss of internal rotation, tenderness over the coracoid, and a positive relocation test. Radiographs are normal, and an MRI scan without contrast shows no definitive lesions. A rehabilitation program is prescribed. Which of the following regimens should be initially employed?
. Stretching the posterior capsule and pectoralis minor tendon
. Stretching the posterior capsule and strengthening the subscapularis
. Stretching the posterior capsule and using shoulder plyometrics
. Stretching the anterior capsule and strengthening all components of the rotator cuff
. Stretching the anterior capsule and improving pitching mechanics

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stretching the posterior capsule and pectoralis minor tendon


Explanation

Throwing athletes, particularly pitchers, have a high incidence of shoulder pain. Recent evidence suggests that posteroinferior capsular tightness and scapular dyskinesis may play a substantial role in the pathologic cascade, culminating in the development of articular surface rotator cuff tears and tearing of the posterosuperior labrum. These patients have posterosuperior shoulder pain primarily. Furthermore, these athletes are susceptible to a muscular fatigue syndrome, the SICK (Scapular malposition, Inferior medial border prominence, Coracoid pain and malposition, and dysKinesis of scapular movement) scapula syndrome. This patient has an internal rotation deficit and tenderness over the coracoid. The internal rotation deficit is addressed by stretching the posterior capsule. The tenderness over the coracoid has been attributed to a contracture of the pectoralis minor tendon secondary to scapular malposition. The initial phase of the rehabilitation regimen is directed at stretching the posterior capsule and pectoralis minor tendon. Burkhart SS, Morgan CD, Kibler WB: The disabled throwing shoulder: Spectrum of pathology. Part III. Arthroscopy 2003;19:641-661.

Question 3137

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 19-year-old man who plays college volleyball undergoes a routine preparticipation physical examination. Figure 35 shows a posterior view of his dominant shoulder. An electromyogram shows that this is a chronic injury, and an MRI scan shows no abnormalities. The best course of action should be

Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 2 - Figure 57

. a program of shoulder strengthening exercises.
. decompression of the nerve at the spinoglenoid notch.
. decompression of the nerve at the transverse suprascapular ligament.
. release of the fascial elements of the muscle tethering the nerve.
. arthroscopy, repair of the posterior labrum lesion, and an anterior capsular shift.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. a program of shoulder strengthening exercises.


Explanation

Isolated palsy of the infraspinatus portion of the suprascapular nerve is common in volleyball players and is seen frequently in the throwing arm of baseball players. The exact cause is not known, but it may be the result of either tethering or traction on the nerve at the spinoglenoid notch. Synovial cysts in the spinoglenoid notch also can be a cause, but the patient's negative MRI findings rule out that entity. Because many isolated nerve palsies of the infraspinatus branch are asymptomatic, initial management should always be nonsurgical. Surprisingly, many athletes with this injury can participate fully in sports. Surgical treatment with decompression at the notch is unpredictable and generally is indicated only if nonsurgical management fails. Ferretti A, Cerullo G, Russo G: Suprascapular neuropathy in volleyball players. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1987;69:260-263.

Question 3138

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 69-year-old woman has just undergone an uncomplicated total shoulder arthroplasty for glenohumeral osteoarthritis. A press-fit humeral stem and a cemented all-polyethylene glenoid component were placed. At this point, what is the postoperative rehabilitation plan?
. Maintain sling immobilization for 6 weeks, and then begin a global range-of-motion program.
. Maintain sling immobilization for 3 weeks, and then begin a global range-of-motion program.
. Immediately begin an active assisted range-of-motion program emphasizing forward elevation and external rotation to the side.
. Immediately begin a passive range-of-motion program for forward elevation only; no external rotation is allowed for 6 weeks.
. Immediately begin active range of motion in forward elevation and external rotation to the side with a progression to full rotator cuff strengthening in 3 weeks.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediately begin an active assisted range-of-motion program emphasizing forward elevation and external rotation to the side.


Explanation

The patient needs to immediately begin an active assisted range-of-motion program emphasizing forward elevation and external rotation to the side. Sling immobilization without stretching for either 3 or 6 weeks will result in severe stiffness that will compromise her ultimate range of motion. Since she has a good quality subscapularis tendon, there is no need to avoid beginning external rotation to the side. However, starting a strengthening program at 3 weeks risks tearing the subscapularis tendon repair. Active strengthening should not begin for 6 weeks postoperatively to allow the subscapularis tendon repair time to heal. Boardman ND III, Cofield RH, Bengston KA, et al: Rehabilitation after total shoulder arthroplasty. J Arthroplasty 2001;16:483-486.

Question 3139

Topic: Knee Sports
A 30-year-old woman injures her knee while skiing. Based on the MRI scan shown in Figure 5, treatment should consist of:
. anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction.
. medial collateral ligament (MCL) reconstruction.
. MCL repair.
. functional rehabilitation and early motion.
. medial meniscal repair.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. functional rehabilitation and early motion.


Explanation

The MRI scan demonstrates a grade III MCL tear. Basic science and clinical studies have shown that nonsurgical management is preferred for MCL tears. Functional rehabilitation and early motion have led to consistently better results than has surgical repair.

Question 3140

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 20-year-old male lacrosse player sustains an anterior dislocation of the shoulder. He is extremely concerned about recurrent dislocations. Which of the following treatments has been shown to reduce the risk of recurrent dislocation?

. Functional rehabilitation and return to play when he has pain-free range of motion
. Immobilization in internal rotation for 6 weeks
. Immobilization in internal rotation for 3 weeks, followed by 3 weeks of supervised rehabilitation
. Immobilization with the arm in neutral rotation
. Immobilization with the arm in 30 degrees of external rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immobilization with the arm in 30 degrees of external rotation


Explanation

Recent evidence has shown that the position of immobilization of the shoulder after a dislocation influences the reduction of the Bankart lesion. In an MRI study in patients who sustained an anterior dislocation, the Bankart lesion was reduced to the glenoid anatomically with the arm in 30 degrees of external rotation. Subsequently, a clinical follow-up study has shown a reduction in recurrence rates when the arm is immobilized in external rotation compared to internal rotation. Itoi E, Hatakeyama Y, Kido T, et al: A new method of immobilization after traumatic anterior dislocation of the shoulder: A preliminary study. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2003;12:413-415.