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Question 3081

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old soccer player sustains a knee injury. On physical examination, the Dial test shows 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees. What structure is primarily injured?

. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Posteromedial corner
. Posterolateral corner
. Medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral corner


Explanation

Increased external rotation of the tibia on the femur at 30 degrees of knee flexion, which reduces at 90 degrees, is indicative of an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. The primary stabilizers of the PLC are the LCL, popliteus tendon, and popliteofibular ligament. If external rotation were increased at both 30 and 90 degrees of flexion, it would suggest a combined injury of the PLC and the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL).

Question 3082

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 19-year-old female basketball player undergoes ACL reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft. Six months postoperatively, her knee is stable, but she complains of focal pain at the harvest site. What is the most common complication specifically associated with BTB autograft harvest compared to hamstring autograft?

. Saphenous nerve injury
. Anterior knee pain
. Knee flexion weakness
. Increased risk of deep vein thrombosis
. Hardware prominence at the tibial tubercle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior knee pain


Explanation

Anterior knee pain (patellofemoral pain) is the most common morbidity specifically associated with harvest of the bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft, occurring in 10-30% of patients. Other risks specific to BTB include patellar tendon rupture or patella fracture. Hamstring graft harvest is more commonly associated with injury to the infrapatellar branch of the saphenous nerve and temporary knee flexion/internal rotation weakness.

Question 3083

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 65-year-old woman sustains a 3-part proximal humerus fracture involving the surgical neck and greater tuberosity. The greater tuberosity fragment is severely displaced superiorly and posteriorly. What muscle forces are primarily responsible for the displacement of this specific fragment?

. Subscapularis and Teres major
. Supraspinatus and Infraspinatus
. Pectoralis major and Deltoid
. Biceps brachii and Coracobrachialis
. Latissimus dorsi and Teres minor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus and Infraspinatus


Explanation

The greater tuberosity serves as the insertion site for the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor. A fracture fragment of the greater tuberosity is classically pulled superiorly by the supraspinatus and posteriorly by the infraspinatus and teres minor. The lesser tuberosity is pulled medially by the subscapularis. The humeral shaft is pulled anteromedially by the pectoralis major.

Question 3084

Topic: Knee Sports

In posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction, the tibial inlay technique is often advocated over the transtibial tunnel technique. What is the primary biomechanical advantage of the tibial inlay technique?

. Decreased risk of popliteal artery injury
. Avoidance of the acute 'killer turn' angle of the graft
. Superior isometric graft placement on the femur
. Better preservation of the meniscofemoral ligaments
. Quicker biological incorporation into the tibial plateau

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avoidance of the acute 'killer turn' angle of the graft


Explanation

The tibial inlay technique secures the graft directly to the posterior facet of the tibia. This avoids the sharp angle (the 'killer turn') that the graft must negotiate when exiting a transtibial tunnel to reach the femoral attachment. This turn has been associated with graft attenuation, abrasion, and failure in traditional transtibial PCL reconstructions.

Question 3085

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old football player sustains a multi-ligament knee injury. A dial test is performed. There is 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees of knee flexion. This physical examination finding is indicative of an isolated injury to which of the following?

. Medial collateral ligament
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Posterolateral corner
. Posteromedial corner

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral corner


Explanation

The Dial test evaluates external rotation asymmetry. An increase of >10 degrees of external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion, but not at 90 degrees, indicates an isolated injury to the posterolateral corner (PLC). If the asymmetry is present at both 30 and 90 degrees, it suggests a combined injury to the PLC and the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL).

Question 3086

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 25-year-old overhead athlete undergoes shoulder arthroscopy and is diagnosed with a Type IV SLAP (Superior Labrum Anterior Posterior) lesion. The tear extends into the long head of the biceps tendon, involving 60% of the tendon substance. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. SLAP repair and biceps tenorrhaphy
. Debridement of the labrum and primary repair of the biceps tendon
. Corticosteroid injection and immediate return to play
. Non-operative management with physical therapy
. Biceps tenodesis and debridement of the labrum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Biceps tenodesis and debridement of the labrum


Explanation

A Type IV SLAP tear is a bucket-handle tear of the superior labrum that extends into the biceps tendon. When greater than 50% of the biceps tendon is involved, the recommended treatment is biceps tenodesis (or tenotomy, depending on age and activity level) along with debridement of the labral tear. Repair of the biceps tendon itself is generally not recommended due to poor healing and continued pain.

Question 3087

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 22-year-old professional athlete undergoes anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) autograft. What is the most common postoperative complication directly associated with this specific donor site?

. Patellar fracture
. Patellar tendon rupture
. Anterior knee pain
. Saphenous nerve entrapment
. Loss of full extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior knee pain


Explanation

Anterior knee pain, especially pain with kneeling, is the most common complication and chief complaint following ACL reconstruction with a BPTB autograft, occurring in up to 10-20% of patients. Patellar fractures and tendon ruptures are severe but rare complications.

Question 3088

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old collision athlete is undergoing an open Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability associated with 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. During the approach, which muscle is typically split to allow passage of the coracoid bone block to the anterior glenoid neck?

. Pectoralis major
. Deltoid
. Subscapularis
. Supraspinatus
. Coracobrachialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure involves transferring the coracoid process with its attached conjoined tendon to the anterior glenoid. To expose the anterior glenoid and pass the graft, the subscapularis muscle is classically split longitudinally (in line with its fibers), creating a 'sling' effect with the conjoined tendon.

Question 3089

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 40-year-old recreational athlete sustains an acute Achilles tendon rupture. If he chooses non-operative management utilizing an early functional rehabilitation protocol instead of open surgical repair, what outcome is most supported by recent high-level clinical trials?

. Significantly higher rate of deep surgical site infection
. Markedly higher risk of re-rupture
. Higher risk of sural nerve injury
. Similar functional outcomes and strength
. Faster return to competitive contact sports

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Similar functional outcomes and strength


Explanation

Recent level-1 evidence (randomized controlled trials) indicates that when early functional rehabilitation (early weight-bearing and ROM in a boot) is utilized, non-operative management yields similar functional outcomes, strength, and re-rupture rates compared to surgical repair, while avoiding surgical wound complications.

Question 3090

Topic: Knee Sports

A 24-year-old football player sustains a complex knee injury. Physical examination reveals an isolated increase in external rotation of 15 degrees compared to the contralateral knee at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetrical external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?

. Isolated Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL)
. Combined Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL) and Posterolateral Corner (PLC)
. Isolated Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)
. Medial Collateral Ligament (MCL) and Posterior Oblique Ligament (POL)
. Isolated Posterolateral Corner (PLC)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated Posterolateral Corner (PLC)


Explanation

The 'Dial Test' assesses for injury to the posterolateral corner (PLC) and the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). An asymmetric increase in external rotation (>10-15 degrees) isolated to 30 degrees of knee flexion indicates an isolated PLC injury. If the asymmetry is present at both 30 degrees and 90 degrees of flexion, it suggests a combined injury to both the PLC and the PCL.

Question 3091

Topic: Knee Sports

In the biomechanics of the native human knee, 'femoral rollback' is the posterior translation of the femoral condyles on the tibial plateau during deep knee flexion, which prevents premature impingement of the posterior distal femur against the posterior tibial margin. This motion is primarily driven by tension in which of the following structures?

. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL)
. Iliotibial band (ITB)
. Popliteus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)


Explanation

Femoral rollback is essential for deep knee flexion. As the knee flexes, the Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL) tightens and pulls the femur posteriorly relative to the tibia. This clears the posterior aspect of the femur from impinging on the posterior tibial plateau. This concept is utilized in posterior-stabilized (PS) total knee arthroplasties via the cam-and-post mechanism.

Question 3092

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During arthroscopy for a 22-year-old male with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon visualizes a capsulolabral complex that has displaced medially and scarred down along the anterior scapular neck. The anterior scapular periosteum remains intact but is stripped from the glenoid margin. Which of the following eponymous terms best describes this pathology?

. Classic Bankart lesion
. Bony Bankart lesion
. ALPSA (Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion) lesion
. GLAD (Glenolabral Articular Disruption) lesion
. HAGL (Humeral Avulsion of Glenohumeral Ligament) lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ALPSA (Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion) lesion


Explanation

An ALPSA (Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion) lesion occurs when the anterior labrum and capsular ligaments are avulsed from the glenoid but the anterior scapular periosteum remains intact. The labrocapsular complex strips and shifts medially, healing in a malunited position on the scapular neck. In contrast, a classic Bankart lesion involves complete tearing of the periosteum.

Question 3093

Topic: Knee Sports
An 11-year-old boy presents with a completely displaced tibial eminence (tibial spine) fracture (Meyers-McKeever Type III) after a bicycle accident. What is the most appropriate management?
. Closed reduction and casting in 90 degrees of flexion
. Closed reduction and long leg cast in full extension
. Open anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction
. Physeal-sparing ACL reconstruction
. Arthroscopic or open reduction and internal fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic or open reduction and internal fixation


Explanation

A Meyers-McKeever Type III injury is a completely displaced tibial eminence fracture. In pediatric patients, this represents an avulsion of the ACL insertion. Type I and II fractures can sometimes be treated non-operatively with casting in extension, but Type III fractures require anatomic reduction and internal fixation (arthroscopic or open) to restore ACL tension and prevent mechanical block to extension.

Question 3094

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

An orthopaedic sports surgeon is performing an isolated single-bundle posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction utilizing the anterolateral (AL) bundle footprint. At what degree of knee flexion should the graft be tensioned and fixed?

. Full extension
. 30 degrees of flexion
. 90 degrees of flexion
. 120 degrees of flexion
. 135 degrees of flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 90 degrees of flexion


Explanation

The PCL consists of two main bundles: the anterolateral (AL) and posteromedial (PM). The AL bundle is the larger and stiffer of the two and is tight in flexion. Therefore, during a single-bundle PCL reconstruction targeting the AL bundle, the graft should be tensioned and fixed at 90 degrees of knee flexion. The PM bundle is tight in extension.

Question 3095

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

When comparing autografts for anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, which of the following accurately describes the biomechanical properties of a 10-mm bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) graft compared to the native ACL?

. BPTB has lower ultimate load and higher stiffness
. BPTB has lower ultimate load and lower stiffness
. BPTB has higher ultimate load and higher stiffness
. BPTB has higher ultimate load and lower stiffness
. BPTB has identical ultimate load and stiffness

Correct Answer & Explanation

. BPTB has higher ultimate load and higher stiffness


Explanation

A 10-mm BPTB graft has an ultimate failure load of approximately 2977 N and stiffness of 620 N/mm. The native ACL has an ultimate load of approximately 2160 N and stiffness of 242 N/mm. Therefore, the 10-mm BPTB graft possesses both a higher ultimate load and higher stiffness compared to the native ACL.

Question 3096

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT arthrogram reveals a glenoid bone loss of 12% and a large Hill-Sachs lesion. Applying the glenoid track concept, the Hill-Sachs lesion is calculated to be 'off-track.' Which of the following surgical strategies is most appropriate to restore stability?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with Remplissage
. Open Latarjet procedure alone
. Coracoid transfer with massive rotator cuff repair
. Arthroscopic capsular shift without addressing the bone lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with Remplissage


Explanation

An 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesion means the lesion engages the anterior glenoid rim during abduction and external rotation. If glenoid bone loss is subcritical (<15-20%) but the lesion is off-track, an arthroscopic Bankart repair combined with a Remplissage (infraspinatus tenodesis and capsulodesis into the defect) converts it to an on-track lesion and prevents engagement. Latarjet is generally reserved for glenoid bone loss >15-20%.

Question 3097

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Following a zone II flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) and flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) repair using a 4-strand core suture and epitendinous repair, what is the primary advantage of utilizing an early active motion rehabilitation protocol compared to immobilization or passive-only protocols?

. Reduced risk of tendon rupture
. Accelerated tendon healing through increased vascularity
. Increased excursion of the tendon leading to fewer peritendinous adhesions
. Decreased gap formation at the repair site
. Prevention of complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased excursion of the tendon leading to fewer peritendinous adhesions


Explanation

Early active motion protocols (using multi-strand robust repairs) promote tendon gliding and excursion. The primary functional advantage of increased tendon excursion is the prevention of peritendinous adhesions, which are notorious in Zone II ('no man\'s land'), resulting in superior final range of motion. It does not necessarily decrease the absolute risk of rupture compared to strict immobilization.

Question 3098

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 40-year-old recreational athlete sustains an acute, closed Achilles tendon rupture. In discussing operative versus non-operative management with a functional rehabilitation protocol, which of the following accurately reflects the current evidence from randomized controlled trials?

. Operative management has a significantly lower re-rupture rate but higher risk of sural nerve injury and wound complications
. Non-operative management with functional rehab has a comparable re-rupture rate to operative management but fewer wound complications
. Operative management results in superior plantarflexion strength at 2 years post-injury
. Non-operative management has a 30% higher re-rupture rate, mandating surgery for all athletes
. Operative management requires a longer period of rigid immobilization post-operatively

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Non-operative management with functional rehab has a comparable re-rupture rate to operative management but fewer wound complications


Explanation

Recent high-quality RCTs (such as Willits et al.) have demonstrated that when an early functional rehabilitation protocol (weight-bearing and early ROM in a boot) is employed, non-operative management of acute Achilles tendon ruptures yields a re-rupture rate that is not statistically different from operative management, whilst entirely avoiding surgical risks like infection, wound breakdown, and sural nerve injury.

Question 3099

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old professional rugby player presents with a history of five anterior shoulder dislocations. A 3D CT scan of the shoulder reveals 28% anterior glenoid bone loss and a concomitant engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. He wishes to return to professional contact sports. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with Remplissage
. Arthroscopic anterior labral repair alone
. Open Latarjet procedure
. Proximal humerus derotational osteotomy
. Open Bankart repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open Latarjet procedure


Explanation

Anterior glenoid bone loss greater than 20-25% in the setting of recurrent anterior instability, especially in a collision athlete with an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion, is an absolute indication for a bony augmentation procedure. The open Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is the gold standard in this scenario. Soft tissue procedures (Arthroscopic or Open Bankart, even with Remplissage) have an unacceptably high failure rate when critical glenoid bone loss (>20-25%) is present.

Question 3100

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old elite baseball pitcher complains of deep shoulder pain that worsens during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI arthrogram reveals a Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior (SLAP) tear that extends substantially into the long head of the biceps tendon, with more than 50% of the tendon detached and frayed. According to the Snyder classification, what is this injury type, and what is the generally recommended treatment in symptomatic adults?
. Type II SLAP tear; Arthroscopic SLAP repair
. Type III SLAP tear; Excision of the bucket-handle tear
. Type IV SLAP tear; Biceps tenodesis
. Type V SLAP tear; Bankart and SLAP repair
. Type I SLAP tear; Conservative management

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type IV SLAP tear; Biceps tenodesis


Explanation

A Snyder Type IV SLAP tear involves a bucket-handle tear of the superior labrum that extends into the long head of the biceps tendon. When there is significant involvement (>30-50% tearing) of the biceps tendon, biceps tenodesis (or tenotomy in older/lower demand patients) is the treatment of choice to relieve pain and remove the damaged tendon. Type II is detachment of the superior labrum and biceps anchor from the glenoid (treated with repair). Type III is a bucket-handle tear of the labrum with an intact biceps anchor (treated with excision of the tear).