Menu

Question 2821

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 20-year-old collegiate female basketball player undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft. She successfully completes rehabilitation and returns to play at 9 months. Which of the following is the most commonly reported complication specifically associated with this choice of graft compared to hamstring autograft?

. Increased incidence of deep surgical site infection
. Higher rate of graft rupture upon return to sport
. Anterior knee pain, particularly with kneeling
. Persistent saphenous nerve neuropathy
. Hamstring weakness and delayed sprint speed recovery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior knee pain, particularly with kneeling


Explanation

The most common and specific complication associated with the use of a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft is donor site morbidity, manifesting primarily as anterior knee pain and pain with kneeling. Saphenous nerve injury and hamstring weakness are more commonly associated with hamstring autografts.

Question 2822

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old male undergoes arthroscopic evaluation of the knee for a medial meniscus tear. The surgeon must decide between meniscal repair and partial meniscectomy. The potential for meniscal healing is primarily dictated by its vascular supply. Which area of the meniscus possesses the greatest intrinsic potential for healing following surgical repair?

. The inner third (white-white zone)
. The middle third (red-white zone)
. The peripheral third (red-red zone)
. The anterior horn exclusively
. The posterior root exclusively

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The peripheral third (red-red zone)


Explanation

The vascular supply to the meniscus originates from the perimeniscal capillary plexus, which supplies only the peripheral 10% to 30% of the meniscus. Tears in this peripheral third (the 'red-red' zone) have robust blood supply and the highest potential for healing following surgical repair.

Question 2823

Topic: Knee Sports

Following an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft, a patient exhibits a lack of full knee flexion but achieves full extension. The physical examination reveals a tight graft in flexion. Which of the following technical errors during graft placement most likely accounts for this finding?

. Femoral tunnel placed too anteriorly
. Femoral tunnel placed too posteriorly
. Tibial tunnel placed too anteriorly
. Tibial tunnel placed too posteriorly
. Graft tensioned in full flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral tunnel placed too anteriorly


Explanation

Placement of the femoral tunnel in ACL reconstruction is critical for graft isometry. If the femoral tunnel is placed too anteriorly, the distance between the femoral and tibial origins increases as the knee flexes. This results in a graft that is tight in flexion (causing loss of flexion) and lax in extension.

Question 2824

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The 'glenoid track' concept is utilized to evaluate bipolar bone loss in anterior shoulder instability. A Hill-Sachs lesion is considered 'off-track' and at risk for engaging the anterior glenoid rim if its medial margin is located where?

. Lateral to the medial margin of the glenoid track
. Medial to the medial margin of the glenoid track
. Superior to the superior margin of the glenoid track
. Inferior to the inferior margin of the glenoid track
. Exactly on the greater tuberosity footprint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial to the medial margin of the glenoid track


Explanation

The glenoid track represents the contact zone of the glenoid on the humeral head during shoulder abduction and external rotation. Its width is determined by the native glenoid width minus the anterior glenoid bone loss. A Hill-Sachs lesion is 'off-track' (meaning it will engage the anterior glenoid rim, leading to dislocation) if the medial margin of the lesion extends medial to the medial margin of the calculated glenoid track.

Question 2825

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old pitcher undergoes arthroscopic repair of a type II SLAP lesion. Postoperatively, he notes significant weakness with external rotation and a vague, aching pain in the posterior shoulder. Physical examination reveals atrophy of the infraspinatus. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

. Suprascapular nerve entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch
. Axillary nerve injury
. Musculocutaneous nerve injury
. Suprascapular nerve entrapment at the suprascapular notch
. Radial nerve injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular nerve entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

Repair of SLAP lesions, specifically when placing posterior anchors or passing sutures at the posterosuperior labrum, places the suprascapular nerve at risk as it passes through the spinoglenoid notch. Injury here predominantly causes isolated denervation and atrophy of the infraspinatus, sparing the supraspinatus.

Question 2826

Topic: Knee Sports

When performing an anatomic single-bundle anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, improper tunnel placement can lead to graft failure.

Positioning the femoral tunnel too anterior (shallow in the notch) will result in a graft that is:

. Tight in flexion and loose in extension
. Loose in flexion and tight in extension
. Tight in both flexion and extension
. Loose in both flexion and extension
. Associated with increased risk of posterior cruciate ligament impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tight in flexion and loose in extension


Explanation

In ACL reconstruction, if the femoral tunnel is placed too anteriorly (high in the notch with the knee flexed), the distance between the femoral and tibial attachments will increase as the knee goes into flexion. This causes the graft to be inappropriately tight in flexion and excessively loose in extension.

Question 2827

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 22-year-old collegiate soccer player requires revision anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. The surgeon decides to use a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) allograft. Which of the following sterilization methods most significantly compromises the biomechanical structural properties of the allograft?

. Ethylene oxide treatment
. Gamma irradiation with 1.2 Mrad
. Gamma irradiation with >2.5 Mrad
. Fresh-freezing at -80°C
. Lyophilization (freeze-drying)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gamma irradiation with >2.5 Mrad


Explanation

High-dose gamma irradiation (>2.5 Mrad or 25 kGy) is required to reliably eliminate the HIV virus and other pathogens from allografts. However, irradiation at or above this level causes significant dose-dependent deterioration of the mechanical and structural properties of the graft (disruption of collagen cross-links). Lower doses (1.0-1.2 Mrad) do not significantly affect biomechanical properties but are less effective at viral sterilization. Fresh-freezing does not alter biomechanics. Ethylene oxide causes an inflammatory response and is largely abandoned for graft sterilization.

Question 2828

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 19-year-old athlete undergoes an arthroscopic partial meniscectomy and meniscal repair.

Understanding the vascular anatomy of the meniscus is crucial for deciding which tears are repairable. Which anatomical zone of the meniscus possesses the highest intrinsic healing potential?

. The inner third (avascular zone)
. The middle third (red-white zone)
. The peripheral third (red-red zone)
. The white-white zone
. The anterior horn exclusively

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The peripheral third (red-red zone)


Explanation

The blood supply to the meniscus comes from the periphery via the perimeniscal capillary plexus (branches of the superior and inferior genicular arteries). The peripheral 10-25% of the meniscus is highly vascularized (the red-red zone) and has the greatest healing potential after repair. The middle third (red-white zone) has partial vascularity with intermediate healing potential. The inner third (white-white zone) is entirely avascular and relies on diffusion for nutrition, making repairs in this zone generally unsuccessful.

Question 2829

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old male is undergoing an arthroscopic rotator cuff repair. A thorough understanding of the anatomic footprint of the rotator cuff is critical for successful anatomic restoration. According to anatomical studies (e.g., Mochizuki et al.), which of the following tendons has the largest insertion footprint on the greater tuberosity?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis
. Long head of the biceps

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Infraspinatus


Explanation

Historically, the supraspinatus was thought to have a larger insertion on the greater tuberosity. However, landmark anatomical studies by Mochizuki et al. demonstrated that the infraspinatus footprint is substantially larger than that of the supraspinatus. The infraspinatus sweeps anteriorly and occupies a significant portion of the greater tuberosity (the lateral aspect), while the supraspinatus insertion is restricted to a much smaller anteromedial area of the greater tuberosity. The subscapularis inserts on the lesser tuberosity.

Question 2830

Topic: Knee Sports

A 24-year-old male presents to the emergency department after a high-velocity knee dislocation. Following closed reduction, you document an absent pedal pulse, and the vascular surgeon performs an emergent popliteal artery repair.

Postoperatively, the patient demonstrates an inability to extend his great toe and reports numbness isolated to the dorsal first web space of the foot. Which of the following knee structures is most likely concomitantly injured?

. Posteromedial corner
. Anterolateral ligament
. Posterolateral corner
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral corner


Explanation

The inability to extend the great toe (EHL weakness) and numbness in the first dorsal web space indicate a deep peroneal nerve palsy. In the setting of a multi-ligament knee injury or dislocation, peroneal nerve injury is highly associated with damage to the Posterolateral Corner (PLC) of the knee, as the common peroneal nerve wraps around the fibular neck in close proximity to the biceps femoris and LCL.

Question 2831

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. He has had 5 dislocations over the past year. A 3D reconstructed CT scan of the shoulder reveals an inverted-pear glenoid with an estimated 28% anterior inferior bone loss. Which of the following surgical interventions provides the most reliable biomechanical stability and lowest recurrence rate for this specific patient?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair with inferior capsular shift
. Latarjet procedure
. Remplissage
. Glenoid resurfacing with allograft

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latarjet procedure


Explanation

Anterior glenoid bone loss exceeding 20-25% (often described visually as an 'inverted pear' glenoid) is a critical threshold in anterior shoulder instability. Soft tissue procedures alone, such as arthroscopic or open Bankart repairs, have unacceptably high failure rates in this setting. The Latarjet procedure (transfer of the coracoid process with the attached conjoint tendon to the anterior glenoid) reconstructs the bony arc and provides a dynamic sling effect, making it the standard of care for critical glenoid bone loss.

Question 2832

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 22-year-old female soccer player undergoes primary anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. Postoperatively, she experiences loss of terminal extension and anterior knee pain. An MRI indicates graft impingement against the intercondylar roof. Which of the following technical errors during tunnel preparation is the most common cause of this specific impingement pattern?

. Femoral tunnel placed too anteriorly
. Tibial tunnel placed too anteriorly
. Femoral tunnel placed too vertically
. Tibial tunnel placed too medially
. Femoral tunnel placed too posteriorly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibial tunnel placed too anteriorly


Explanation

Placing the tibial tunnel too anteriorly is the most common cause of intercondylar roof impingement. The tibial tunnel should be placed posterior to the intersection of Blumensaat's line and the tibial plateau when the knee is in full extension. If placed anterior to this line, the graft will impinge on the notch roof during terminal extension, leading to a loss of extension and potential graft failure.

Question 2833

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 20-year-old collegiate quarterback sustains a traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation. Post-reduction MRI demonstrates an anterior-inferior labral tear that is displaced medially and rolled down the glenoid neck, still attached to an intact but stripped anterior periosteal sleeve. Which of the following eponymous terms best describes this specific soft-tissue lesion?

. Bankart lesion
. ALPSA lesion
. Perthes lesion
. GLAD lesion
. HAGL lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ALPSA lesion


Explanation

An ALPSA (Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion) lesion occurs when the anterior labrum is torn and displaced medially/inferiorly along the glenoid neck, remaining tethered by an intact stripped periosteum. A Bankart lesion involves a complete detachment of the labrum and periosteum. A Perthes lesion is a non-displaced tear with an intact periosteum. GLAD is a Glenolabral Articular Disruption. HAGL is Humeral Avulsion of the Glenohumeral Ligament.

Question 2834

Topic: Knee Sports

During an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, the surgeon places the femoral tunnel excessively anterior to the anatomic footprint. What is the most likely biomechanical consequence of this malpositioning?

. The graft will be excessively tight in flexion and loose in extension
. The graft will be excessively tight in extension and loose in flexion
. The graft will be excessively tight in both flexion and extension
. The graft will be loose in both flexion and extension
. The graft will only exhibit laxity in internal rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The graft will be excessively tight in flexion and loose in extension


Explanation

Femoral tunnel position is critical in ACL reconstruction. If the femoral tunnel is placed too far anteriorly (shallow), the distance between the femoral and tibial tunnels increases as the knee flexes. This results in the graft being tight in flexion (potentially limiting knee flexion or causing graft failure/stretching) and loose in extension. Conversely, a tunnel placed too posterior will be tight in extension and loose in flexion.

Question 2835

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During arthroscopic management of anterior shoulder instability, a 'remplissage' procedure is occasionally indicated for a patient with an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. This technique involves tenodesis of the posterior joint capsule and which of the following structures into the humeral defect?

. Supraspinatus tendon
. Infraspinatus tendon
. Teres minor tendon
. Subscapularis tendon
. Long head of the biceps tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Infraspinatus tendon


Explanation

A remplissage (French for 'filling') procedure involves tying the posterior capsule and the infraspinatus tendon into a large, engaging Hill-Sachs defect. This converts an intra-articular defect into an extra-articular one, thereby preventing the defect from engaging the anterior glenoid rim during abduction and external rotation.

Question 2836

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine



When comparing operative versus nonoperative management for acute Achilles tendon ruptures using modern functional rehabilitation protocols (early weight-bearing and motion), which of the following statements best reflects the consensus of recent high-level literature?

. Operative management has a significantly lower re-rupture rate with functional rehab protocols.
. Nonoperative management has a significantly higher re-rupture rate regardless of rehab protocol.
. There is no significant difference in re-rupture rates, but operative management has a higher risk of soft-tissue complications.
. Operative management results in measurably superior final plantarflexion strength and return to play rates.
. Nonoperative management is associated with a significantly higher rate of deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

Correct Answer & Explanation

. There is no significant difference in re-rupture rates, but operative management has a higher risk of soft-tissue complications.


Explanation

Recent meta-analyses and randomized controlled trials demonstrate that when modern functional rehabilitation protocols (early motion and early weight-bearing) are utilized, there is no statistically significant difference in the re-rupture rates between operative and nonoperative management of acute Achilles tendon ruptures. However, operative management does carry a significantly higher risk of soft-tissue complications, including infection and wound breakdown.

Question 2837

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine



During arthroscopic evaluation of a 22-year-old athlete's knee, a longitudinal tear is identified in the peripheral red-red zone of the medial meniscus. Which of the following blood vessels provides the primary vascular supply to this region of the medial meniscus?

. Middle genicular artery
. Medial inferior genicular artery
. Lateral superior genicular artery
. Descending genicular artery
. Anterior tibial recurrent artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial inferior genicular artery


Explanation

The medial and lateral inferior genicular arteries provide the primary blood supply to the peripheral 10-25% (red-red zone) of the menisci via the perimeniscal capillary plexus. The middle genicular artery penetrates the posterior capsule to supply the cruciate ligaments and synovial lining.

Question 2838

Topic: Knee Sports

A 24-year-old football player sustains a twisting injury to the knee. On examination, there is a normal posterior sag sign. The dial test demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation compared to the contralateral side at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetrical external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Isolated Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL) tear
. Isolated Posterolateral Corner (PLC) injury
. Combined PCL and PLC injury
. Isolated Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) tear
. Combined ACL and Posteromedial corner injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated Posterolateral Corner (PLC) injury


Explanation

The dial test evaluates the posterolateral corner (PLC) and the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). Increased external rotation (>10 degrees compared to the normal side) at 30 degrees of flexion, but symmetric rotation at 90 degrees, indicates an isolated PLC injury. Increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees indicates a combined PCL and PLC injury.

Question 2839

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old male rugby player is evaluated for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. He has had 5 dislocations over the past year. A CT scan of his shoulder indicates 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment to minimize his risk of recurrent dislocation?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair
. Latarjet procedure
. Remplissage procedure alone
. Putti-Platt procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latarjet procedure


Explanation

Glenoid bone loss is a critical factor in recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Critical bone loss is typically defined as >20-25% of the inferior glenoid width. In the setting of significant anterior glenoid bone loss (>25%), soft tissue stabilization (arthroscopic or open Bankart repair) has unacceptably high failure rates. Bony augmentation procedures, such as the Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer), are indicated to restore glenoid width and provide a sling effect via the conjoint tendon.

Question 2840

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 21-year-old collegiate soccer player is undergoing anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. The surgeon discusses various graft options and their respective morbidity profiles. Which of the following complications is most specifically associated with the use of a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft compared to a multi-strand hamstring autograft?

. Higher graft re-rupture rate
. Increased risk of deep joint infection
. Anterior knee pain
. Symptomatic tunnel widening
. Increased risk of deep vein thrombosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior knee pain


Explanation

Bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) autograft is a very reliable graft for ACL reconstruction due to bone-to-bone healing at the tunnels. However, its most common specific donor-site morbidity is anterior knee pain (including pain kneeling), reported in up to 10-30% of patients. Hamstring autografts have less anterior knee pain but are associated with slightly higher rates of tunnel widening and potentially a marginal decrease in deep knee flexion strength.