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Question 221

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

During physical examination, a patient with chronic groin pain demonstrates pain with a resisted sit-up and resisted hip adduction. MRI shows edema at the rectus abdominis insertion. Which anatomic structure is most commonly attenuated in this condition?

. Posterior inguinal wall
. Anterior rectus sheath
. Pectineal ligament
. Inguinal ligament
. Iliopsoas fascia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior inguinal wall


Explanation

Athletic pubalgia (core muscle injury) often involves attenuation or tearing of the posterior inguinal wall (transversalis fascia) and the common aponeurosis of the rectus abdominis and adductor longus.

Question 222

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A professional hockey player presents with chronic groin pain. Radiographs show symphyseal sclerosis and widening. A single-leg stance (flamingo) view shows 3 mm of superior translation of the pubis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Athletic pubalgia
. Adductor strain
. Osteitis pubis
. Femoroacetabular impingement
. Inguinal hernia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteitis pubis


Explanation

Symphyseal sclerosis, joint widening, and instability on single-leg stance (flamingo) views are hallmark radiographic findings of osteitis pubis. This is commonly seen in hockey players and distance runners.

Question 223

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which radiographic measurement on a Dunn lateral radiograph is most indicative of Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)?

. Lateral center-edge angle > 40 degrees
. Alpha angle > 55 degrees
. Tonnis angle < 0 degrees
. Crossover sign
. Posterior wall sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Alpha angle > 55 degrees


Explanation

An alpha angle greater than 50-55 degrees on a lateral hip radiograph indicates a decreased anterior head-neck offset, which is characteristic of Cam-type FAI.

Question 224

Topic: General Sports & Tendon

A 35-year-old distance runner presents with deep posterior gluteal pain. MRI reveals narrowing of the space between the lesser trochanter and the ischium with edema in the quadratus femoris muscle. What is the diagnosis?

. Piriformis syndrome
. Ischiofemoral impingement
. Proximal hamstring avulsion
. Gluteus medius tear
. Pudendal nerve entrapment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ischiofemoral impingement


Explanation

Ischiofemoral impingement is characterized by the narrowing of the ischiofemoral space. It typically presents with deep buttock pain and edema or tears in the quadratus femoris muscle on MRI.

Question 225

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

In the non-operative management of a severe quadriceps contusion, what is the target time-frame to achieve 120 degrees of knee flexion to minimize the risk of prolonged disability?

. 24 hours
. 7-10 days
. 3-4 weeks
. 6-8 weeks
. 3 months

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 7-10 days


Explanation

Achieving 120 degrees of pain-free knee flexion within 7-10 days is a key milestone in the non-operative rehabilitation of severe quadriceps contusions to ensure early return to play.

Question 226

Topic: General Sports & Tendon

Which of the following is the most dreaded and functionally limiting complication of surgical repair of a chronic proximal hamstring avulsion?

. Deep vein thrombosis
. Ischiadic (sciatic) nerve palsy
. Heterotopic ossification
. Superficial wound infection
. Recurrent rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ischiadic (sciatic) nerve palsy


Explanation

The sciatic nerve is in close proximity to the proximal hamstring origin (approximately 1.2 cm away). In chronic repairs, scar tissue often tethers the nerve, making iatrogenic sciatic nerve injury a high risk.

Question 227

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

Which structure forms the medial border of the femoral triangle, a relevant landmark when evaluating groin pain in an athlete?

. Sartorius
. Inguinal ligament
. Adductor longus
. Pectineus
. Gracilis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adductor longus


Explanation

The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by the inguinal ligament, laterally by the medial border of the sartorius, and medially by the medial border of the adductor longus.

Question 228

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

What is the primary pathophysiology behind Pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)?

. Aspherical femoral head
. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
. Acetabular overcoverage
. Femoral retroversion
. Coxa valga

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular overcoverage


Explanation

Pincer FAI is caused by focal or global acetabular overcoverage (e.g., retroversion, coxa profunda), leading to impingement of the femoral neck against the prominent acetabular rim.

Question 229

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A patient with suspected athletic pubalgia undergoes a diagnostic local anesthetic injection. Which anatomical structure is typically targeted to confirm the diagnosis of a rectus abdominis/adductor longus aponeurotic plate injury?

. Ischial tuberosity
. Pubic symphysis cleft
. Acetabular joint
. Greater trochanteric bursa
. Sacroiliac joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pubic symphysis cleft


Explanation

A diagnostic injection into the pubic cleft or the rectus/adductor aponeurosis can help localize the pain generator in suspected athletic pubalgia, confirming the diagnosis if symptoms temporarily resolve.

Question 230

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During surgical intervention for recalcitrant external snapping hip syndrome, what structure is typically lengthened or released?

. Iliopsoas tendon
. Rectus femoris
. Iliotibial band
. Gluteus medius
. Tensor fasciae latae muscle belly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliotibial band


Explanation

External snapping hip is caused by the iliotibial band (or anterior border of the gluteus maximus) snapping over the greater trochanter. Surgical treatment involves IT band lengthening, such as a Z-plasty or crucial release.

Question 231

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which of the following physical exam findings is considered the most sensitive test for anterior femoroacetabular impingement and labral pathology?

. Flexion, Abduction, External Rotation (FABER)
. Flexion, Adduction, Internal Rotation (FADIR)
. Log roll test
. Scour test
. Ober test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexion, Adduction, Internal Rotation (FADIR)


Explanation

The FADIR (Flexion, Adduction, Internal Rotation) test is highly sensitive for anterior intra-articular hip pathology, including anterior FAI and labral tears, as it provokes mechanical impingement.

Question 232

Topic: General Sports & Tendon

A 35-year-old water skier falls and sustains a forced hyperflexion injury of the hip with the knee extended. MRI demonstrates a complete 3-tendon proximal hamstring avulsion retracted 3.5 cm. What is the most appropriate management?

. Non-weight bearing with crutches for 6 weeks
. Corticosteroid injection to the ischial tuberosity
. Open surgical repair with suture anchors
. Platelet-rich plasma injection
. Endoscopic debridement of the ischial bursa

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open surgical repair with suture anchors


Explanation

Complete 3-tendon proximal hamstring avulsions retracted greater than 2 cm in active individuals are a strong indication for acute surgical repair. Non-operative management in this setting results in significant residual weakness, pain, and cramping.

Question 233

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old female dancer complains of a painful clunking sensation deep in her anterior groin when extending her hip from a flexed, abducted, and externally rotated position. Ultrasound shows sudden tendon displacement. Which anatomic structure is most likely involved?

. Iliotibial band over the greater trochanter
. Gluteus maximus over the ischial tuberosity
. Iliopsoas tendon over the iliopectineal eminence
. Rectus femoris over the anterior inferior iliac spine
. Sartorius over the anterior superior iliac spine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliopsoas tendon over the iliopectineal eminence


Explanation

Internal snapping hip (coxa saltans) is caused by the iliopsoas tendon snapping over the iliopectineal eminence or femoral head. It is characteristically reproduced by moving the hip from a flexed, abducted, and externally rotated position into extension.

Question 234

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old marathon runner presents with lateral hip pain and a palpable snap when walking. The Ober test is strongly positive. If extensive non-operative management fails, what surgical intervention is most appropriate?

. Iliopsoas tendon release
. Gluteus medius repair
. Iliotibial band lengthening or Z-plasty
. Trochanteric bursectomy alone
. Osteochondroplasty of the femoral head-neck junction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliotibial band lengthening or Z-plasty


Explanation

External snapping hip is caused by a tight iliotibial band (ITB) slipping over the greater trochanter. Refractory cases that fail physical therapy and injections are treated with ITB lengthening, Z-plasty, or crucial release.

Question 235

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old hockey player presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate an alpha angle of 65 degrees on the lateral view. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism of his joint damage?

. Linear contact between the acetabular rim and femoral neck
. Shear forces causing delamination of the anterosuperior acetabular cartilage
. Primary degeneration of the ligamentum teres
. Global overcoverage of the femoral head
. Dysplastic shallow acetabulum causing edge loading

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Shear forces causing delamination of the anterosuperior acetabular cartilage


Explanation

Cam impingement (alpha angle >55 degrees) features an aspherical femoral head that enters the joint in flexion, creating massive shear forces. This directly leads to anterosuperior acetabular cartilage delamination and labral tears.

Question 236

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 20-year-old rugby player sustains a direct blow to the anterior thigh. He is diagnosed with a quadriceps contusion. Which of the following is the most widely accepted clinical criterion for safe return to play to minimize the risk of re-injury?

. Pain-free resisted knee extension
. 90 degrees of active knee flexion
. 120 degrees of pain-free active knee flexion
. Normal serum creatine kinase levels
. Negative MRI for hematoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 120 degrees of pain-free active knee flexion


Explanation

Return to play after a quadriceps contusion requires at least 120 degrees of pain-free active knee flexion and functional sport-specific agility. This milestone ensures adequate muscle flexibility to minimize the risk of re-injury and progression to myositis ossificans.

Question 237

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

In a patient diagnosed with athletic pubalgia (core muscle injury), MRI often shows edema and tearing at the pubic symphysis. This pathology most commonly involves the confluent aponeurosis of which two structures?

. Rectus abdominis and adductor longus
. External oblique and pectineus
. Transversalis fascia and adductor magnus
. Internal oblique and gracilis
. Rectus femoris and iliopsoas

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rectus abdominis and adductor longus


Explanation

Athletic pubalgia commonly involves an injury to the anterior pubic aponeurosis. This structure represents the confluent, intertwined insertion of the rectus abdominis and the adductor longus on the pubis.

Question 238

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 15-year-old track athlete hears a pop and experiences sudden pain in the anterior pelvis while sprinting. Radiographs show a small avulsion fracture of the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). Which two muscles attach at this anatomic site?

. Rectus femoris and iliopsoas
. Sartorius and tensor fasciae latae
. External oblique and internal oblique
. Gluteus minimus and piriformis
. Pectineus and adductor longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sartorius and tensor fasciae latae


Explanation

The anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) serves as the origin for the sartorius and the tensor fasciae latae (TFL) muscles. Avulsion fractures of the ASIS are common in sprinting adolescents and are typically treated non-operatively.

Question 239

Topic: General Sports & Tendon

A 40-year-old marathon runner complains of chronic, localized pain over the ischial tuberosity that worsens during prolonged sitting and uphill running. Which clinical test is most specific for diagnosing proximal hamstring tendinopathy?

. FADIR test
. Thomas test
. Modified bent-knee stretch test
. Ober test
. Ely test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Modified bent-knee stretch test


Explanation

The modified bent-knee stretch test and the Puranen-Orava test place maximal tension on the proximal hamstring origins. They are highly sensitive and specific clinical maneuvers for diagnosing proximal hamstring tendinopathy.

Question 240

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Internal impingement of the shoulder between the posterosuperior glenoid rim and the rotator cuff occurs in which phase of throwing:

. Wind-up
. Early cocking
. Late cocking
. Acceleration
. Follow-through

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Late cocking


Explanation

Internal impingement of the shoulder occurs with the arm in the abducted, externally rotated, and extended position that corresponds with the late cocking phase of throwing. Internal impingement is responsible for shoulder pain commonly occurring in overhead and throwing athletes. Initial treatment is focused on therapy that strengthens the anterior structures, stretches the posterior structures, and controls the scapular position in space. If nonoperative treatment fails, arthroscopic debridement, thermal capsular shrinkage, and humeral derotational osteotomy have been used with varying degrees of success.